Micah Ong

What gives them the right to insert YHWH so that the the scriptures are manipulated to suit the their doctrine?

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JW Insider    958
19 minutes ago, bruceq said:

And this is the very reason now dozens of Biblse now contain "YHWH" in various forms in the New Testament whereas in 1950 when the NWT was made only a couple did.

The Foreward to the 1950 NWT indicates that there were then about 60 Bible versions with a vernacular form of YHWH in the NT.  This included NT-only Bibles, especially "missionary" Bibles. Did you mean only a couple of full Bibles as opposed to partial?

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bruceq    725
3 minutes ago, JW Insider said:

The Foreward to the 1950 NWT indicates that there were then about 60 Bible versions with a vernacular form of YHWH in the NT.  This included NT-only Bibles, especially "missionary" Bibles. Did you mean only a couple of full Bibles as opposed to partial?

Yes I did not mean the ones in other languages full copies. The ones I offer are only in English. Sorry for any confusion.

The couple were like "Emphatic Diaglott" and a few others.

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Eoin Joyce    695
3 hours ago, Micah Ong said:

Well at least show us one!

The wording of your original question wasn't clear to me and it reads as if you are referring to any manuscripts prior to extant NT manuscripts. I deduce (hopefully) from your reply that you must mean any NT manuscripts, to which the alternative answer applies:

8 hours ago, Eoin Joyce said:

If you mean manuscripts of the New Testament earlier than what is extant, then I do not know how this could be possible, and the only answer is: as soon as they are found.

 

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JW Insider    958
4 minutes ago, bruceq said:

Yes I did not mean the ones in other languages. The ones I offer are only in English. Sorry for any confusion.

Yes, I understand. I just saw your link and now I recognize that I have already purchased from you several times. In case that link disappears, I wanted to quote from it. I hope you don't mind. I wanted to have access to comment on what you said:
 

Quote

 

. . . Psalms Dead Sea Scrolls 11Q5.  {See New World Translation Study Edition for more info }.

   Why should the name "JEHOVAH" {YHWH} appear in the New Testament ? 

   One reason is that Copies of the Hebrew Scriptures used in the days of Jesus and his apostles contained the Tetragrammaton throughout the text. In the past, few people disputed that conclusion. Now that copies of the Hebrew Scriptures dating back to the first century have been discovered near Qumran, the point has been proved beyond any doubt. So Jesus and his Apostles would have quoted from these scrolls that contained the Tetragrammaton - JEHOVAH !!! {See 2013 New World Translation Appendix A and B}.

  This Psalms in a Dead Sea Scroll dated to the first half of the first century C.E. the very time of Jesus and his Apostles of the First Century Christian Congregation! The text is in the style of the Hebrew letters commonly used after the Babylonian exile, but the Tetragrammaton appears repeatedly in distinctive ancient Hebrew letters

   Psalms Scroll 11Q5 Reproduction mounted in a clear two-sided frame 6 by 18 inches with hardware for table or wall mounting included. This Psalms scroll contains 11 of the 15 Songs of Ascent (Psalms 120-134). Pilgrims would sing these Psalms while they ascended up to Jerusalem. It was in 1956 that a Bedouin discovered cave 11 with these psalms. These Psalms date to the first half of the 1st century C.E.

 

I was just doing some reading last night and this morning to try to get a better sense of what the DSS actually show us about the use of the Divine Name during the time period(s) represented. So I'll want to get back to this soon.

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bruceq    725

Yes you may quote from my ebay site, also there is now alot more updated info from 2017 that many may not realize since it is not in print but only online in the NWT Study edition on JW.ORG:

Appendix C

 
  1. C1

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  2. C2

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  3. C3

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  4. C4

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AllenSmith    154

Apparently, there is more to be understood here, none of which has been explained by assumptions. Research! Research!

YAHWEH: THE DIVINE NAME IN THE BIBLE 1975

The emphasis on the active existence of YHWH is made strongly by Walther Eichrodt and is representative of modern scholarship.12 Smith comments as follows, "at the moment we are not entitled to say more than that the consensus among Old Testament scholars provides a strong basis for an understanding of the God of biblical faith in historical and dynamic terms, and not in conceptions of timeless and static entities, whether eternity or God's aseity." 1 3 The "theologians of hope" have incorporated similar insights in their interpretation of the divine name. For example, Jürgen Moltmann maintains, "YHWH, as the name of the God who first of all promises his presence and his kingdom and makes them prospects for the future, is a god 'with future as his essential nature,' a God of promise and of leaving the present to face the future, a God whose freedom is the source of new things that are to come." 1 4 Here the imperfect 'ehyeh is understood primarily as a future tense. So also, the Roman Catholic theologian, J. B. Metz, abandons the traditional Thomist metaphysic of being and makes this comment on the meaning of Exod.3:14, "According to this version God revealed himself to Moses more as the power of the future than as a being dwelling beyond all history and experience. . . . His transcendence reveals itself as our 'absolute future.' 1 5

The Old Testament witness to YHWH brings with it a change in the meaning of other terms for deity which are used in place of the Tetragrammaton. Charles West observes, "The other concepts for deity in the Old Testament, Elohim and Adonai, the former of which was rooted in pagan polytheism and the latter in everyday social experience of power and authority, were used and redesigned, emptied of their previous significance, and made to demonstrate the absolute subordination of human and divine powers to this one lord." 1 6 The eventual substitution of dônây for YHWH within Judaism as a mark of veneration for the divine name which could no longer be uttered with propriety, had far reaching consequences. Among Jews of the Diaspora, kyrios was the Greek equivalent for the Tetragrammaton in the LXX version of the Hebrew scriptures, reflecting the fact that ' adönäy was understood as a substitute for the Tetragrammaton. Inevitably the emphasis had shifted to the concept of sovereignty, lordship.

The use of mdonây in the Hebrew Bible and kyrios in the LXX has very wide ramifications for New Testament scholarship, especially in relation to Christological formulation. The content of the term kyrios in the declaration of I Cor.12:3, "Jesus is Lord [kyrios]," requires to be determined, in order to arrive at an adequate understanding of a most important aspect of the person of Christ. Gustaf Daim an summarized the historical situation in this way: "The significant transition from the divine name *Jahve' to the divine name 'Lord' did not take place in the region of Hebraic Judaism. It is rather a peculiarity of Jewish Hellenism, and from that source found its way into the language of the Church, even of the Semitic-speaking part of it." 1 7 This, indeed, is the thesis of William Bousset in his monumental study, Kyrios Christos.18 He claims that "the title kyrios spans an area in the history of religions which can still be fairly precisely delimited. It penetrated Hellenistic-Roman religion from the East; Syria and
Egypt are its actual home territories."19 Although
kyrios was used in the ordinary secular sense of "master" or "owner," the use of the specific religious sense can be fully documented from the Hermetic literature and the writings of the Gnostic sects.20 "It was in this atmosphere," Bousset writes, "that Antiochene Christianity and that of the other primitive Christian Hellenistic communities came into being and had their growth."

 

In Bousset's view, the Gentile Christian Church at Antioch, recognizing Jesus as a cult-hero, and coming under Hellenistic influences, began to apply the title Kyrios to him. This was the situation within the church to which Paul was introduced. The Pauline epistles give abundant evidence that the designation kyrios was the title which now became normative for Jesus, since Christos had now become virtually a proper name. The affirmation of faith, "Jesus is kyrios" (I Cor. 12:3), perhaps originally an ecstatic cry of prophetic rapture, became a baptismal confession (1 Cor. 6:11; Acts 19:5) [pp.99-101]

 

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JW Insider    958
1 hour ago, bruceq said:

Yes you may quote from my ebay site, also there is now alot more updated info from 2017 that many may not realize since it is not in print but only online in the NWT Study edition on JW.ORG:

Thanks for pointing this out and making the links easy to get to. It's also up to date on the 2016 Watchtower Library, [v.18 with regular online updates through 2017].

The resources provided by the Watch Tower Society are excellent, of course, but they are not always clear about which statements are assumptions (and therefore subject to change) and which statements are 'statements of fact.' Sometimes even the word 'proven' is used, when it's only a strongly held assumption or belief.

I'm working through it now to see which are which:

*** nwtsty C1 The Restoration of the Divine Name in the “New Testament” ***
When Jesus and his apostles were on earth, the divine name, or Tetragrammaton, appeared in the Hebrew manuscripts of the “Old Testament.” (See

    Hello guest!
and
    Hello guest!
.)

Undoubtedly, the divine name or Tetragrammaton appeared in the Hebrew mss of the OT. Perhaps not in all of them, but apparently in the vast majority. I'm trying to do a quick, last-minute study to get a sense of what the evidence shows about Hebrew mss of the OT in this time period that did NOT contain the Divine Name. [POINT A, for further research] To get a sense of the evidence for this, I'm also trying to look into the overall time period when the Divine Name began to fall out of general use among Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek-speaking Jews. [POINT B, for further research]

*** nwtsty C1 The Restoration of the Divine Name in the “New Testament” ***
The divine name also appeared in the
Septuagint, the Greek translation of the “Old Testament” that was widely used in the first century C.E. At that time, the divine name was represented in the Septuagint by either the Hebrew characters (YHWH) or the Greek transliteration of those characters (IAO).

This first sentence is also undoubtedly true. Almost every quote of the OT in the NT follows the Septuagint [LXX] instead of the Hebrew text that the NWT (and almost everyone else) uses for the OT, wherever the LXX and Hebrew are known to differ.

The second sentence is true, too, but I don't think we are really saying definitively that, in the first century, the divine name was always represented either by YHWH or IAO in the LXX. We know of various other divine name abbreviations, and it might still be true that some LXX texts, even in the first century C.E., may have already contained replacements for the divine name. [POINT C, for further research]

*** nwtsty C1 The Restoration of the Divine Name in the “New Testament” ***
Some portions of manuscripts of the
Septuagint from the first century C.E. and earlier still exist today, and they prove this fact. So when the inspired writers of the “New Testament” quoted from the “Old Testament,” they must have seen the Tetragrammaton, whether they were quoting directly from the Hebrew text of the “Old Testament” or the Greek translation of that text, the Septuagint.

The first sentence is correct again, and what they "prove" is that at least some of the LXX copies (which we currently date to the first century C.E. and earlier) have YHWH (or a form of this) or IAO, which we consider to be a transliteration of IAO.

The second sentence states that the inspired writers of the NT when quoting from the OT, must have seen the Tetragrammaton in one of these two forms, at least. This may very well be true, although I'm not sure it was always necessarily true based on "POINT C," which I still need to research further.

Also, of course, it may very well be true that they saw the Tetragrammaton and purposely, even through inspiration, chose NOT to copy it. This doesn't necessarily mean that Jesus didn't utter the divine name. It's even possible that they knew that Jesus had uttered the divine name when quoting from Isaiah or Psalms for example, and yet the inspired Bible writers produced their initial manuscripts with "kyrios" or "theos" for example. This latter point is not something I expect to research further, or draw a conclusion from, it's only that I don't wish to jump to any conclusions not actually evident from the facts.

*** nwtsty C1 The Restoration of the Divine Name in the “New Testament” ***
Today, however, no manuscripts of the “New Testament” from the first century C.E. are available for us to examine. So no one can check the original Greek manuscripts of the “New Testament” to see whether the Bible writers used the Tetragrammaton. The Greek manuscripts of the “New Testament” that would have a bearing on this issue are copies that were made from about 200 C.E. onward. The more complete manuscripts are from the fourth century C.E., long after the originals were composed.

Nothing to research further here. These are all statements of proven fact. (Until and unless further evidence or manuscript discoveries are disclosed.) Further disclosed discoveries or evidence would not necessarily help the side of the argument that we are expecting it to help, however.

*** nwtsty C1 The Restoration of the Divine Name in the “New Testament” ***
However, sometime during the second or early third century C.E., a practice had developed where those copying the manuscripts either replaced the Tetragrammaton with a title such as Lord or God or copied from manuscripts where this had already been done.
 

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We might already have enough evidence to test this particular claim. [POINT D, for further research]

I believe it already shows that the NWT translators have backed off the stronger claim made earlier in 1984 (and quoted by Micah Ong, above):

*** Rbi8 p. 1564 1D The Divine Name in the Christian Greek Scriptures [1984] ***
Sometime during the second or third century C.E. the scribes removed the Tetragrammaton from both the Septuagint and the Christian Greek Scriptures and replaced it with Kyʹri·os, “Lord” or The·osʹ, “God.”

Also the footnote  

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in the new C1 Appendix, opens up the possibilities much more widely, and removes the need to have mentioned the second or third century scribes in the first place. After all, these scribes, it is admitted, might just be copying from manuscripts where the Tetragrammaton had already been replaced with "Lord" or "God." In the worst case, this comes very close to admitting that it might have already been done up to and (technically) even including the initial manuscript, where an inspired NT writer might have already removed the Tetragrammaton reference from an LXX quotation, for example. That's obviously not the intent of the NWT Appendix writer to state this, but especially with the footnote material in view, it shows just how little is left of the original claim.

The last point for further research, therefore, might not include the claim from the 1984 NWT about second and third century scribes removing the Tetragrammaton from the LXX. The real important question is just the NT manuscripts here. It was always an odd claim anyway that both Jewish and Christian scribes would have agreed at some point as late as the third century to remove the name from both the NT mss and the LXX mss, as if all the dozens of manuscript copies were under some central control. Recensions of various types would still exist, because there is no way they could have got them all. And if we find evidence of this being done before the second and third centuries, the entire argument loses its meaning.

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bruceq    725

Insider have you ever read the research of 

 
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    Hello guest!
, 
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, Department ...
 
He has very interesting research that is not in print but is on the Tetragrammaton including in the New Testament?

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JW Insider    958
9 minutes ago, bruceq said:

Insider have you ever read the research of 

 
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Not before you mentioned him. I just downloaded his 34-page pdf:

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From what I can see, he quotes from a lot of sources that I have, including a couple resources I just read through last night, so it should be an interesting read.

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bruceq    725

Yes that one is good and also his research into "IAO" as the Greek version of "Jehovah"  and what he says about how it may have appeared in original NT authographs.

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It is similar to George Howards ideas of the Tetragram in the NT  except this guy goes into much more research into the subject

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AllenSmith    154

Teetering with OLD NEWS. Why ignorance is just catching up to what the Watchtower and secular scholars have already fully researched. Yet there is an ex-bethelite here, still dismissing the Watchtower Research as unreliable. Hypocrisy at its best!

 

YAHWEH: THE DIVINE NAME IN THE BIBLE 1975

THE TETRAGRAMMATON WITHIN JUDAISM

The precise pronunciation of the Tetragrammaton is by no means easily recovered, although the view most widely accepted today is that the divine name was pronounced Yahweh. The literature on the subject is very extensive.1 In the sixteenth century. Genebrardus suggested the pronunciation, Jahvey2 largely on the strength of Theodoret's assertion that the Samaritans used the pronunciation 'labe, subsequent to the time when pronunciation of the Tetragrammaton was forbidden to the Jews.3 The question as to the date when pronunciation of the divine name was no longer permitted finds no certain answer. In only comparatively recent times has the pronunciation Yahweh been widely acknowledged. Even though Gesenius gave the pronunciation as Yahweh in his lexicon of 1815, scholars continued to employ the customary Jehovah, out of deference to tradition, until Ewald began to use Jahveh (= Yahweh) regularly in his writings. Of the various alternative forms that have been proposed, the most probable is Yahoox Yâhiï. A. Lukyn Williams4 has argued for such a pronunciation on the basis of theophorous names in the Old Testament ending in YHW, the Elephantine evidence, the attestation of Diodorus Siculus to a form ,lao,5 various passages drawn from patristic sources, and charms and amulets which use the form 7ao. Sachau, Grimme, and Leander had earlier made similar claims. W. F. Albright acknowledges the arguments for such a pronunciation, when he refers to "Yahû, which appears beside Yahwéh, especially in the Elephantine Papyri, the jar-stamps from the same period found in Jcricho, and as the final clement in proper names/' 6 However, Albright offers the explanation that. Yahu is a jussive form derived from the verbal form Yahweh, and that the forms could be interchanged.


Although Yahweh seems to be a probable pronunciation of the Tetragrammaton, since Yahi1 does not really account for the final he, there cannot be complete certainty about it. Once pronunciation of the name was proscribed, the correct way of pronouncing it eventually was lost. We can only surmise that Yahweh is the correct pronunciation. Murtonen states, "The pronunciation of the tetragram was forgotten because of 1) the threat that Yhwh 'will not hold him guiltless that taketh his name in vain,' and 2) the unnaturalness of the circumstance that a god who was regarded as the only god in the whole universe had a proper name.

B. D. Eerdmans claims that "the full Tetragrammaton is an onomatopoeia,"9 imitating the sound of thunder. From Isa.30:27, "Behold, the name of the Lord comes from far, burning with his anger, and in rising smoke," he deduces that the divine name is an onomatopoeia of the thunder. He finds confirmation in such passages as Ps.29:3 and Exod.33:19. However, this view seems to be based on a very literal understanding of the texts cited. That the sound of thunder should evoke awe on the part of those who recognized in it the majesty of YHWH seems reasonable, but that the name YHWH itself should be an onomatopoeia of the thunder is questionable. In the case of Psalm 29^ the word qôl, "voice," if drawn out, sounds much more like thunder reverberating. Before we examine the traditions regarding the Tetragrammaton which are found in the Mishnah, some attention should be given to the forms of the divine name in the papyri from Elephantine and in the Dead Sea Scrolls A Jewish settlement at Elephantine existed prior to the Persian conquest, but took on the special task of acting as a military colony safeguarding the
interests of the Persians at the southern border of Egypt.10 The original reason for the settlement is not known, although it may well be that in the seventh century Manassch sent mercenary troops to Egypt in exchange for horses (cf. Deut.17:16).11 The Aramaic archives from the colony on the island of Elephantine date from 495 B.C., down to the end of the fifth century.12 From these archives, especially from the letters to Bagoas, governor of Judaea in the late fifth century, we learn that a Jewish Temple was erected earlier than the Persian conquest of 525 B.C., and that it was destroyed in 410 B.C. The Temple was dedicated to the god
YHW. Oriented towards Jerusalem, its dimensions resembled those of the Jerusalem Temple. BezaleL Porten states, "Details about the Temple derive from the papyrus recording its destruction and asking assistance for its reconstruction (C30/31). It was built prior to the Persian conquest of 525 B.C.E. and contained stone pillars, five gateways of carved stone with bronze hinges, a 4cedarwood' roof and woodwork (? 'srnc) (C30:9ff./31 :Sff.).

 

A problem of interpretation is raised by the mention in the papyri of other deities. A. E. Cowley remarks, "It would seem that besides Ya'u they recognized cAnath, Bethel, Ishum and Herem. There may have been others, but it is at least a coincidence that we have the names of five gods and that there were five gates to the temple (30:9)." 2 9 If these are separate deities, what is their relationship to one another? Were syncretizing tendencies at work? Cowley concludes, "It was not a case of falling away from a monotheistic ideal, but a continuation of the pre-exilic popular beliefs."30 According to W. F. Albright, "the three divine names Eshem-bêth'elt Herem-bêth'el, cAnath-bêth ,el (= c Anath-Yahu), meaning respectively 'Name of the House of God' (= God), 4Sacredness of the House of God,' and 4Sign(?) of the House of God' would reflect pure hypostatizations of deity, probably influenced by contemporary Canaanite-Aramaean the־ ological speculation, in which Beth'el frequently appears as the name of a god (from the seventh to the fourth century B.C.)."31 Porten, on the other hand, finds the evidence for hypostatization "not sufficiently decisive"32 and looks rather to pagan influences resulting from intermarriage as the occasion for the introduction of these names of foreign deities.33 The process of syncretism can be seen in the compound name of the deity, Anathyahu. Porten makes the observation, "YHW was still God, but Anath was added assurance, Anathyahu was that aspect of YHW which assured man's well-being. Although the Arameans had a shrine to the Queen of Heaven, the name Anath appears only twice among the many personal names from Elephantine and Syrenc (C22:108; BK 4:3). If the goddess' cultic importance may be judged from her onomastic absence, it would seem that she did not play a major role in the communal religious life of the Jews.

The Qumran scrolls contain some items of interest in relation to the use of the divine name. In describing the biblical manuscripts found in Cave 4, Patrick Skehan draws attention to a number of unusual features.35 For example,4QIsc "contains such names as Yhwh, Yhwh sb'wt, ,iwhynw, and the like in paleoheb rew script. This is almost unique among square-letter manuscripts in Qumran 4." 3 6 Nevertheless, the Fouad papyrus No. 266 of Deuteronomy in Greek, consisting of Deut. 31:28-32:7, appears to be the oldest witness to a differentiation in script for the Tetragrammaton, which is written in Aramaic characters.37 A Greek papyrus MS of Leviticus (4QLXX Lev.b), in a hand similar to that of the Fouad papyrus of Deuteronomy (first century B.C.), employs 7AO instead of Kyrios, which nowhere occurs in the document. 3 8 David Diringer mentions the fact that both the Tetragrammaton and the name ‘el (= God) are written in early Hebrew characters in certain of the Qumran MSS which are otherwise written in square-letter Hebrew script.39 Some Greek codices of the Christian era contained the Tetragrammaton in early Hebrew script; e.g., P. Oxy. vii 1007, a third century papyrus fragment of Genesis, abbreviates as probably to represent a doubled yodh \ in Origen's Ilexapla (third century), Ihe Greek versi on s of Aquila and Symmachus represented the divine name by pi, iota, pi, iota, capitalized,40 obviously intended to approximate to the Hebrew charactcrsfor the Tetragrammaton in the LXX, almost always abbreviated to ks as in the case of the Chester Beatty papyrus of Numbers and Deuteronomy. This evidence suggests that *doriäy may have been read as a substitute for the divine name as early as the time that the Hebrew Bible was being translated into Greek, i.e., from the third century B.C. onward.

Among the Qumran manuscripts, The Manual of Discipline is unique in attesting a five-letter name for God, hw'h* (1QS VIII.13). In an allusion to Isa.40:3, the phrase V drk hw'h יcorresponds to drk YHWH of the MT, which is represented by drk followed by four dots where the Tetragrammaton occurs. The passage in context reads, "And when these become members of the Community in Israel according to all these rules, they shall separate from the habitation of ungodly men and shall go into the wilderness to prepare the way of Him (ihw'h *)׳f as it is written 'Prepare in the wilderness the way of . . . ,' יmake straight in the desert a path for our God' (Isa. xl.3)." 4 2 In S. Mowinckel's opinion, "As the scribe does not write drkw his hw'h ' certainly means something more than an ordinary suff. 3rd. pers. masc.; it is meant to be a real compensation for the divine name." 4 3 This he takes as evidence that the pronoun "He" (hü) was used as a name or surrogate for God, a view shared by such scholars as del Medico, S. Zeitlin and G. Lambert. The final aleph is an obstacle to this interpretation, however, although the fact that the pronoun hwft appears in 1QS III: 17, 25; 4:25, strengthens the supposition. W. H. Brownlee surmises that hw'h ' is a periphrasis for God which originated as an abbreviation of the combined form hû7h ׳Ihyrn .[pp.79-83]

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Micah Ong    28

So still no one has shown any evidence of YHWH in the earliest copies of the "New Testament."

11 hours ago, bruceq said:

Appendix C

 
  1. C1

      Hello guest!

I only see manuscripts from Exodus, Deuteronomy, Job, Isaiah and other Hebrew Scriptures.

Justin Martyr converted to Christianity around 150 A.D., a mere 50 years after the Bible was completed. He had access to early copies of the New Testament yet in The Second Apology, Chapter VI he wrote;

"But to the Father of all, who is unbegotten, there is no name given. For by whatever name He be called, He has as His elder the person who gives Him the name. But these words, Father, and God, and Creator, and Lord, and Master, are not names, but appellations derived from His good deeds and functions."

Justin Martyr shows that Christians referred to the Father by appellations, but not a name such as Jehovah.

That the Holy Name was not being uttered in Jesus day is attested to by first century historian Josephus:

"Whereupon God declared to him [Moses] his holy Name, which had never been discovered to men before; concerning which it is not lawful for me to say anymore. " (Josephus; Antiquities 2:12:4)

As we do not have the actual original copies that the Bible writers penned it is always possible to say that YHWH may have appeared in the original copy. However the weight of evidence shows that YHWH was not in the original copies. If the Watchtower claims God allowed men to edit out his name "YHWH" and that no proof has been found to its existence to this day, how can a person have confidence in any of the New Testament?

 

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Micah Ong    28
12 hours ago, bruceq said:

And this is the very reason now dozens of complete Bibles now contain "YHWH" in various forms in the New Testament whereas in 1950 when the NWT was made only a couple did. It is because of the evidence over the years from the original LXX that so many has as can be seen from the over 100 Translations I offer on ebay that contain the Divine Name in the New Testament.

The New Testament is one of the most attested ancient documents. The reason a person places trust in it is their conviction that God ensured the Bible has come down to us accurately. If use of the name Jehovah is so important one must wonder why the word never appears in any existing New Testament documents. If God inspired and protected the Bible, keeping the Bible accurate throughout all history why does his name not appear in the oldest Greek manuscripts or in the very first Bible, the 5th century Latin Vulgate?

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Micah Ong    28
12 hours ago, Eoin Joyce said:

If you mean manuscripts of the New Testament earlier than what is extant, then I do not know how this could be possible, and the only answer is: as soon as they are found.

So until then you are only assuming YHWH is in the NT.

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Micah Ong    28

All in all I don't think it matters because Jesus is not concerned with theology only love.  After all it was the theologians who killed Jesus(let's not be pedantic, we know he gave up his life but it was an act of execution on their part), who new God's name(YHWH). 

On one occasion an expert in the law stood up to test Jesus. 

"'Teacher," he asked, 'What must I do to inherit eternal life?' 

"'What is written in the law?' he replied. 'How do you read it?' 

"He answered: 'Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength and with all your mind, and, love your neighbor as yourself." 

"You have answered correctly," Jesus replied, "Do this and you will live." (Luke 10:25-28)

I'm not saying Theology or Theologians are bad as long as it's helping you are grow in love the way Jesus taught.  Being dogmatic seems to go against love from what I have experienced.  But there is nothing wrong with learning and being open minded as long as you don't miss the point of what Jesus said.

 

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Eoin Joyce    695
3 hours ago, Micah Ong said:

So until then you are only assuming YHWH is in the NT.

Not quite. I am assuming religionists took it out.

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Micah Ong    28
1 hour ago, Eoin Joyce said:

Not quite. I am assuming religionists took it out.

That is still assuming though isn't it?  Anyway I have finished ping ponging around because no evidence is shown and this is pointless debating rather than focusing on what Jesus said was important.  As I said, the Pharisees knew God's name but he wasn't concerned with that, he was concerned with the condition of the heart and providing hope. 

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bruceq    725
8 hours ago, Micah Ong said:

All in all I don't think it matters because Jesus is not concerned with theology only love.  After all it was the theologians who killed Jesus(let's not be pedantic, we know he gave up his life but it was an act of execution on their part), who new God's name(YHWH). 

On one occasion an expert in the law stood up to test Jesus. 

"'Teacher," he asked, 'What must I do to inherit eternal life?' 

"'What is written in the law?' he replied. 'How do you read it?' 

"He answered: 'Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength and with all your mind, and, love your neighbor as yourself." 

"You have answered correctly," Jesus replied, "Do this and you will live." (Luke 10:25-28)

I'm not saying Theology or Theologians are bad as long as it's helping you are grow in love the way Jesus taught.  Being dogmatic seems to go against love from what I have experienced.  But there is nothing wrong with learning and being open minded as long as you don't miss the point of what Jesus said.

 

   You seem to understand the truth that YHWH was in the Hebrew Scriptures. But you have not provided any original autographs of the NT to prove your point that YHWH was not in the NT. Of course we also cannot prove our point "by those means" since no one has the original mss. So this discussion is pointless as you say.

   However it occurs to me that we should believe what Jesus taught as you say. And what did he use to teach God's Word? Did he use the NEW TESTAMENT? No. It was not even written yet. Jesus read from and taught from the HEBREW SCRIPTURES which I am under the impression that you agree and as everyone knows that YHWH was in the Hebrew Scriptures which is the ONLY Bible Jesus had. JESUS used such as the Isaiah scroll he first picked up which contained the Divine Name. 

  As for the Bibles message being changed I agree that the message has not but "WORDS" have been such as at 1 John 5:7 which was in the Latin Vulgates Catholic Douay version of 1610 but later versions of Catholic Bibles removed the spurious addition found there. So even the Bible says that this would happen as John said even when he wrote in 98 C.E. {long before 150 C.E.}  that already there were some who were once true Christians who left and started teaching false religious things and of course John also said at Revelation 22:18 some of the very last words in the Bible :"" If anyone makes an addition to these things,  God will add to him the plagues that are written in this scroll;  

    Hello guest!
 and if anyone takes anything away from the words of the scroll of this prophecy, God will take his portion away from the trees of life  and out of the holy city,  things that are written about in this scroll".

   Notice it did not say no one would ever attempt to remove or add to the Bible but that they would have accountability if they did. And notice it said "WORDS of the scroll" not message of the Bible which God has kept intact.

   As for your other point on Love I agree that Love would identify God's People not debates about words in the Bible which by the way YOU started B|. John 13:35.

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