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John 17:3, Know the Only True God who sent Jesus


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The Gospel of John

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John 17:3

"And this is eternal life, that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom you have sent."

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? Proof of Trinitarian Error

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At John 17:3, Jesus identifies the only true God as the Father, the God whom he reveals to the world. The Trinitarian response is to claim that since the word only modifies/qualifies the word God it does not rule out the possibility that Jesus, and the Holy Spirit, are also the only true God.

And so Trinitarians like to say in response:

  • The Father is the only true God
  • The Son is the only true God
  • The Holy Spirit is the only true God

In other words, the Trinitarian is admitting that if the word only had qualified the word  Father then yes only the Father would be the one true God. But since it does not, the Trinitarian insists that it does not rule out Jesus and the Holy Spirit from being the only true God too.

The Trickery, Exposing the cracks in the Trinitarian Armor

1. Matthew 24:36

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But concerning that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father only.

We will begin with the above Trinitarian claim, which must be taken with a grain of salt. At Matthew 24:36, the word "only" DOES modify/qualify the Father and they still deny the obvious implications of the verse - that only the Father is omniscient and therefore only the Father is God. It says only the Father knows the day and hour. So we can see that even if Jesus had said, "Father.... this is eternal life, that ONLY You are the true God" that form of language still wouldn't make any difference to Trinitarians.

God's day of judgement, that only he knows, will come like a thief in the night.

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2. Unwitting Admissions of Trinitarian Scholars

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In their discussions and debates of John 1:1, Trinitarians scholars admit that the use of a definite article at John 1:1c would have meant Jesus is the entirety of God and such language would exclude everyone else but Jesus. In fact, according to their own argument, all one would have to say is, "THE Father is THE God," and this would exclude absolutely everyone else. The words "only" and "true" would not even be required.

3. Obvious Trinitarian Hypocrisy

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Trinitarians will insist that the expression, "God sent his only son", which means that nobody else is God's only-begotten son and it means that ONLY Jesus is God's only-begotten son. We must carefully regard the significance of this hypocrisy. On one hand, they insist the words "only Son" do mean that only Jesus is God's own son while at the same time they insist the words "only true God" do not mean that only the Father is the true God. But the situation is exactly the same. They are talking out of both sides of their mouth. Their claim that "only Son" means only Jesus is God's son betrays the fact that they really do know that John 17:3 is telling us only one person is the only true God.

4. The Real Trinitarian Problem

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The real problem at hand for the Trinitarians is their implied definition of the word "God" for this verse. They must attempt to suggestively define the word "God" as "the divine ousia" or "the divine nature" since we are here talking about the one God and the oneness of Trinitarian doctrine is the divine nature. To define "God" as the divine nature here in this verse is the only definition of the word "God" which Trinitarians can even attempt:

  • The Father is the only true [divine nature]
  • The Son is the only true [divine nature]
  • The Holy Spirit is the only true [divine nature]

However, this will not even work for them at all. For Jesus to identify the Father as the divine nature would be confusing person and being, a big violation and or something they are not suppose to do in regards to their doctrine, that is, the Trinity. If the Father is identified as the divine nature that would mean Jesus' divine nature is the Father.

5. "You" and "the only true God" are Necessary Equivalent.

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When Jesus says, "that they may know You, the only true God," it is quite clear that he intends to say that one is equivalent to the other. "You" = "the only true God." However, the only way Trinitarians can define the word "God" is to define it as "the divine nature." But that would imply that "You" and "Only true God" are equivalent things confusing the what and the who, person and being. Also, the Father is NOT equivalent to the divine nature since that would mean Jesus' divine nature is the Father in Trinitarian doctrine. When it is understood how they are suggestively defining their terms, it becomes clear that they are not making any sense.

6. It's Not About Knowing a Nature but an Identity

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Jesus is here referring to knowing God the Father is a personal and intimate way, a personal relationship with God. The words "only true God" are a reference to an identity with whom we can have a relationship. We do not have relationships with natures; we have relationships with persons. And the person we are to have a relationship with here is "the only true God", that is, the Father.

FATHER... that they may know YOU, THE ONLY TRUE GOD, and Jesus Christ whom YOU sent.

The words "only true God" cannot refer to a divine nature. These words must refer to an identity with whom we can know, that is, with whom we can have an intimate personal relationship. Therefore, just as Trinitarian scholars have already admitted, the Father and "the only true God" are co-extensive interchangeable terms and this excludes all but the Father from identity as the only true God. To have a relationship with the only true God is to have a relationship with the Father. One cannot then say that the only true God is also Jesus with running headlong into the insanity of saying Jesus is the Father.

7. Jesus Christ's Only True God

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At John 20:17, Jesus makes it quite clear that his God is to be our God and that God is his Father. At John 17:3, Jesus is in prayer to his God and Father. His Father is his only true God and his only true God is his Father alone and it is this only true God who sent Jesus as he says here. Jesus knows nobody else but his Father as the true God. Hence, we can be certain that when he refers to the Father as "the only true God" in prayer that he means only his Father is the true God. In fact, Jesus does not even need to say it. It is plainly evident quite apart from John 17:3 that nobody else but his Father alone is his God.

 

Conclusion

It is quite plain that the Trinitarian trickery here is to suggestively imply a definition of the word "God" which means "divine nature" so that they can say all three persons are the only true God, that is, all three persons have this one divine nature. However, it is clear that the word "God" is not a nature here but an identity, a person, the Father, with whom we have a personal relationship.

Jesus here identifies his one and only God, the Father alone, as "the only true God," which thereby excludes everyone else including himself.

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Father is called ‘the only true God’, then Jesus Christ cannot be the true God.


a) The context is Jesus as a man praying the great High Priestly prayer to the Father, and as such it was proper for the man Christ Jesus to call the Father ‘the only true God’. Christ would not have said this if it was spoken from the viewpoint of His deity.
b) If Jesus’ reference to the Father as ‘the only true God’ was meant to exclude the Son from deity, then the same principle of interpretation would have to apply to Jude 4 where Jesus Christ is called ‘our only owner and Lord, Jesus Christ’ (NWT).

This would have to exclude the Father from Lordship and ownership. No JW (or anyone else) would accept this.

They speak of the Father as ‘the Lord Jehovah’, even though Jude 4 calls Jesus ‘our
only Lord’.

The Holy Spirit is also called ‘Lord’ in II Corinthians 3:17, ‘the Lord is that Spirit’.

The use of the word ‘only’ is not used exclusively of the Father, nor of the Son,
nor of the Holy Spirit. Jesus being called our ‘only’ Lord does not exclude the Father or Holy Spirit being Lord.

The Father being called ‘the only true God’ does not exclude the Son or Holy Spirit from
deity.

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1 hour ago, Jesus.defender said:

Father is called ‘the only true God’, then Jesus Christ cannot be the true God.

Of course. But you seem to contradict yourself before, to where you have called Jesus as well as the Holy Spirit being God as well, which excludes the only God being the Father. For it is 100% true only the Father is God, but clearly you do not accept that, you do not even accept anything in regards to what Jesus had said "that is written".

1 hour ago, Jesus.defender said:

a) The context is Jesus as a man praying the great High Priestly prayer to the Father, and as such it was proper for the man Christ Jesus to call the Father ‘the only true God’. Christ would not have said this if it was spoken from the viewpoint of His deity.

Indeed, it is surely called the The High Priestly Prayer, moreover, it is the most famous for it being the very last prayer of Lord Jesus Christ. For Jesus had done this prayer in behalf of his disciples, for the current time and age they were in now and of the future, since it was very soon that of what will become of Jesus. As for the last sentence of yours, you seem to be missing the point.

Jesus wanted his disciples to know who the true God is, hence why he said for them to come to know you "that they know you" or "for they coming to know you" in some translations, it varies, all in all equals to them taking in knowledge of the true God and continuing to know who the true God is, in addition to that, we see the Greek verb being used in this passage, γινώσκωσιν (ginōskōsin), Strong's is 1097, also meaning to perceive and or recognize.

It alludes to denote a process of taking in said knowledge about someone and or getting to know someone and eventually becoming better acquainted with someone, in this case, the disciples to God the Father. What we also see when we put this passage in context is it refers to developing a personal relationship with God by means of by continuous increase in knowledge of God and Christ and a growing trust in them both. However, it takes more than just knowing who a person is or knowing his name, therefore, it would also involve knowing what that person has an interest in as well as their disinterests, knowing his standards, values, actions, etc.

2 hours ago, Jesus.defender said:

b) If Jesus’ reference to the Father as ‘the only true God’ was meant to exclude the Son from deity, then the same principle of interpretation would have to apply to Jude 4 where Jesus Christ is called ‘our only owner and Lord, Jesus Christ’ (NWT).

Hence the reason Jesus was born into the Law. He knew of the Father ever since he was a child for all Jews were to learn of the God of Israel, the very reason why Jesus had said what he said in regards to what he professed as a child, and as an adult (Mark 12:28-34). For Jesus was sent (Shaliah) to represent the Father and to teach things that is not of his own, but of the Father, and such includes the good news gospel of which we can see in the four gospel accounts. 

The disciples of Jesus already knew and used God, even by his name. They saw and read it in the Hebrew Old Testament and or scrolls available in very synagogues they dwell in, this also includes the oldest and most reliable source, the very source of what the Bible Translations we have today is based on, nothing pertaining to that of the 16th century, moreover, this source is a Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures, which was used in teaching.

Lord Jesus made the Father's name known not only by just using it, however, by revealing the one who bears that name, His purposes and the like. For it is known that Jesus himself is the one who had been at the Father’s side, Jesus could explain the Father in a way that no one else could (Matthew 11:27, John 1:18). The knowing of who God is and his name and what God is all about, of this, Jesus' disciples take great importance of.

Are you sure about that? Scriptural Principle and application when there is a lack of connection?

Jude 4 speaks of those who dwell in the churches to do vile things and brazen conduct, such ones who do not adhere to God's laws, those who are inviting of sexual misconduct, accursed teachings, idolatry, unkindness, and a list of other things. The reason as to why this specific point in this passage says the following:

For certain people have crept in unnoticed who long ago were designated for this condemnation, ungodly people, who pervert the grace of our God into sensuality and deny our only Master and Lord, Jesus Christ.

This verse also direct to Acts 20:29, 30 and 2 Peter 2:1, that being said, there is a lack in principle of what you are attempting to apply, in addition, this verse alone also alludes to the very fact that of such ones, people, sinning because they know God will forgive them, in a sense, abusing God's forgiveness.

2 hours ago, Jesus.defender said:

This would have to exclude the Father from Lordship and ownership. No JW (or anyone else) would accept this.

I concur. Jesus is indeed Lord, and the Father is Lord, and clearly we can recognize who is above who. This goes for any Lords of Masters of mankind compared to the Christ and or God himself, in addition, God has indeed made Jesus himself Lord and Christ (Acts 2:36, cf. see 1 Corinthians 6:14), the very reason Jesus speaks of his God given authority and power as seen in the Gospel of Matthew.

I have also made a response to such in the past here already. For the true one God is indeed Lord but that does not mean someone who is Lord is God, for the scriptures speak of many Lords, example Abraham to Sarah, The 2 Angels to Lot, The Philippian Jailer to both Paul and Silas, David's servants to David himself, etc., we also have Jesus, and the one above all, being God himself.

If anyone understand JW Christology, I believe they're aware of this already, the same can be said about those who take time to read and research passages and taking high importance to context. But it would seem you have it the other way around, for such in the opposite view is said of Mainstream Christians of mainstream Christendom.

2 hours ago, Jesus.defender said:

They speak of the Father as ‘the Lord Jehovah’, even though Jude 4 calls Jesus ‘our
only Lord’.

You do realize God is Lord and His Son is Lord? Like I said, there are many Lords/Masters in scripture, some above others, and I made mention of this in the past already in full detail.

2 hours ago, Jesus.defender said:

The Holy Spirit is also called ‘Lord’ in II Corinthians 3:17, ‘the Lord is that Spirit’.

If you are aware of what the oldest source even is, that of the 4th century, you would realize the Lord being talked about here, is God himself. We know that the Holy Spirit is of God and wherever it is, there is freedom.

The cross-references also make this very clear: Isaiah 61:1, John 4:24, Romans 6:14, 8:15, Galatians 5:1, 13.

2 hours ago, Jesus.defender said:

The use of the word ‘only’ is not used exclusively of the Father, nor of the Son,
nor of the Holy Spirit. Jesus being called our ‘only’ Lord does not exclude the Father or Holy Spirit being Lord.

And?

2 hours ago, Jesus.defender said:

The Father being called ‘the only true God’ does not exclude the Son or Holy Spirit from
deity.

Then you have failed to take in, in full context, of what this final prayer of Jesus is about. For as stated already, Jesus identifies his one and only God, the Father alone, which thereby excludes everyone else including himself.

That being said, we are not talking about godlike ones (I do not consider the Holy Spirit as a person for such have already been confuted elsewhere), the focus is on the bene elohim himself, Jesus, who speaks of El Shaddai as being the only true God.

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