Menrov

It is not uncommon to be told by (fellow) JW's that only new magazines or books are to be used. Why? Well, for the reasons already expressed: these book contain "old light" or expressions similar to this. Just consider this; The WBTS is the only source of the material that JW's use. So, all JW's know, believe and accept comes from that source. In other words, the WBTS is accountable for what they published as truth. (even if a JW would disagree, he runs the risk of being DF'ed). Further: the claim is that the WBTS has been selected to act as FDS since 1919 (was 1918....). Though apparently not appointed (WT 2013) but still FDS and that God has used them (WBTS) as the ONLY channel to educate so-called Gods people. So, one might expect that at least basic doctrines would be correct, without needing one or more corrections. Would God allow people to learn WRONG things? So, if the WBTS can be wrong, can it be that for example l am right? In other words, could I be the FDS? What scriptural proof is there that directs me to the WBTS as the source of my bible education and explanations? And who says that what is published today is good? I therefore believe that when the WBTS tries to block old (pre 2000) books and magazines to be used or reviewed ,it is proof they do not even believe their own material. If the Revelation contained so much truth and explanations valuable for all of us, why is it no longer vaiuable ? According to the WBTS we are close to the end, right? Would such a book then not be most useful? Apparently not.

It is always good to read the context. Paul is talking to the entire congregation. they gathered and ate. But they did not eat with respect. They ate because they were hungry and some got drunk. Objective of the meal: 1 Cor. 11:26 For every time you eat this bread and drink the cup, you proclaim the Lord’s death until he comes. So, does this mean that all WHO DO NOT eat nor drink are NOT proclaiming the Lord's death? If one is in the congregation but does not eat or drink, according to Paul, is not supporting the arrangement. You can ask yourself: why be present? It is not being an observer but objective was to participate. Verse 33 explains: 33 So then, my brothers and sisters,12 when you come together to eat, wait for one another. 34 If anyone is hungry, let him eat at home, so that when you assemble it does not lead to judgment. I will give directions about other matters when I come. Unfortunately, the WBTS teaches not to gather to eat but actually to deny the bread and wine and only be there to observe. I cannot find a verse or verses that supports this. Anyone?

Everlasting life is life that is promised to all believers and means you live as long as you have access to tree or water of life: Rev 22:14 Blessed are those who wash their robes so they can have access to the tree of life and can enter into the city by the gates. Same like with Adam and Eve. Access can be removed by Jesus and the Father Immortal life: means that you have life inside of you. You do not need access to these trees. Jesus is immortal, The Father is. Not sure about angels. I guess (cannot prove from the scriptures) that being in the proximity of the Father is similar to having access to tree of life. In other words, they have eternal life and live as long as they are allowed in the proximity of the Father.

It seems you like to philosophy.....I hope you do not teach others tthis way....

Jesus NEVER said there will be a so-called approved organisation. Pls use scriptures to prove otherwise

No...minors should never be baptized until they can and must make their own decisions. For this reason Jesus was in our view rather old to get baptizrd. His parents were no longer accountable. In case of JWs it is of more concern because of the authority elders are given over baptised persons and the shunning policy (same for Mormons and Iglesia N Christ)

Why is this topic always considered of great importance to JWs? The reason of His death is of importance. One is not a better Christian if he / she believes in a cross or not.

Hi, thanks for raising. A few things are not clear to me. I hope you can explain. 1) he term “born again” refers to a new beginning in the relationship between God and the person who is born again based on what scriptures is this based? Jesus had already a relationship and was already a child of His Father. 2) the word translated in NWT with again can also mean From Above. I feel the latter is more correct as it would fit Jesus that He was "born" from above. Your view? 3) When Jesus discussed the subject, he said that those born again would be “born from water and spirit.” (John 3:5) This expression refers to baptism in water followed by baptism with holy spirit. I am not sure Jesus meant a sequence as there is only one baptism, not two. This note is also of interest: Jesus’ somewhat enigmatic statement points to the necessity of being born “from above,” becausewater and wind/spirit/Spirit come from above. Isaiah 44:3-5 and Ezek 37:9-10 are pertinent examples ofwater and wind as life-giving symbols of the Spirit of God in his work among people. Both occur in contexts that deal with the future restoration of Israel as a nation prior to the establishment of the messianic kingdom. It is therefore particularly appropriate that Jesus should introduce them in a conversation about entering the kingdom of God. Note that the Greek word πνεύματος is anarthrous (has no article) in v. 5. This does not mean that spirit in the verse should be read as a direct reference to the Holy Spirit, but that both water and wind are figures (based on passages in the OT, which Nicodemus, the teacher of Israel should have known) that represent the regenerating work of the Spirit in the lives of men and women. . 4) That second group of Christians have the I understand that this is the official doctrine of the WBTS but was just wondering if you can support this view? I got always confused with this view as Jesus taught that there will be one flock and one shepherd. There are always two opposites: good/evil, flesh/spirit, dark/light, believer/unbeliever, goat/sheep etc. Thanks

I agree with this. It can be most troublesome when one starts to do real bible research and cannot harmonize certain doctrines taught by the organization with the scriptures (context).

I was under the impression that type-antitype was no longer used unless bible clearly supports it. The other sheep concept / doctrine is not scriptural. There is only one flock, consisting of Jews and Gentiles, with one Shepherd. All follow this one Shepherd, one goal. There is one baptism, one hope, one Lord, one faith, one body: Eph. 4:4 There is one body and one Spirit, just as you too were called to the one hope of your calling, 5 one Lord, one faith, one baptism, 6 one God and Father of all, who is over all and through all and in all. 1Co 10:17 Because there is one bread, we who are many are one body, for we all share the one bread. The bible does not teach the concept of 3 groups: anointed believer, non-anointed believe, non-believer. It is always 2: good/evil, light /dark, GodWealth(richness), etc. I guess these verses give the answer.

To consider Isa. 49:16 Look, I have inscribed your name40 on my palms; (it is about Zion). Or: ISA.44:5 One will say: “I belong to Jehovah.”+Another will call himself by the name of Jacob, And yet another will write on his hand: “Belonging to Jehovah.”And he will adopt the name of Israel.’ None of the Greek / OT scriptures make any reference to writing on bodies. I surely believe it is a personal choice. Like with clothes, hair dress, jewelry, or anything else one can use as a means to dress or decorate him/herself.

I like discussing doctrines, views and translations but your question is far too broad. Please be specific.

607 or any other calendar date, what is the value in relation to your Christian life? Did any other key bible character use dates to support their acts of faith? For a true believer, dates are irrelevant. All they (should) care about is their faith and how they show their faith towards others. We do not know the exact date Jesus was born, nor when He died. Yes, the day in the month is mentioned but to point this to a secular calendar date(day, month and year) is hardly possible if at all. It is as JW Insider explained, all dates are secular. If dates or the method to date events, was so important or essential, the bible would have provided that in a way ALL can understand. But as it stands now, denominations use their acclaimed "insight" on how to date biblical events as a unique selling proposition. To differentiate from other denominations. Further to this specific item: regardless if one agrees / accepts a certain date (i.e. 607, 587 etc ect), it does not justify the prophecy presumably linked to that date (gentile times, 7 times, 1914). In other words,, for us this dating seem relevant because we are taught that the selected date is the beginning of a prophecy, with its own (secular dates) calculation again. But if there was no such prophecy linked to that date that has any relevance for us living today, then the date would not be of any importance either. If actually there is no prophecy from God related to the date we are speaking about here, is it fair to say that the whole dating is useless? In conclusion, I believe true believers are not worried about dates. Only their acts of faith are relevant. Regardless on what date these acts are done.

This is another topic in which the WBTS acts with double standards. If the higher education is to the benefit of the organization, it is embraced, but if it is in the benefit of the R&F, it is denied.......