John 17:3 ‘know thee the only true God’ in Topics Posted June 16 11 hours ago, Srecko Sostar said: John 14:28 "You heard that I said to you, 'I go away, and I will come to you.' If you loved Me, you would have rejoiced, because I go to the Father; for the Father is greater than I.'" John 2:19,21 "Jesus answered and said unto them Destroy this temple and in three days I will raise it up" 21 "But he spake of the temple of his body" Romans 8:11 "But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you" Romans 8:9-11 You, however, are not in the realm of the flesh but are in the realm of the Spirit, if indeed the Spirit of God lives in you. And if anyone does not have the Spirit of Christ, they do not belong to Christ. 10 But if Christ is in you, then even though your body is subject to death because of sin, the Spirit gives life NIV-28127d" data-link='[<a data-cke-saved-href="NIV-28127d" href="NIV-28127d" title="See footnote d">d</a>]' style="font-size:0.625em; vertical-align:top">[ Hello guest! Please register or sign in (it's free) to view the hidden content. ] because of righteousness. 11 And if the Spirit of him who raised Jesus from the dead is living in you, he who raised Christ from the dead will also give life to your mortal bodies because ofNIV-28128e" data-link='[<a data-cke-saved-href="NIV-28128e" href="NIV-28128e" title="See footnote e">e</a>]' style="font-size:0.625em; vertical-align:top">[ Hello guest! Please register or sign in (it's free) to view the hidden content. ] his Spirit who lives in you. I don't know what your point is here. First, get rid of the NIV and ignore footnotes as they are just somebodys' opinion. Yes, the Holy Spirit raised Jesus. So did God the father and Jesus. "But he spake of the temple of his body" The greek word here means a LITERAL, PHYSICAL Body. The bottom line is the Bible CLEARLY showing that the triune God raised Jesus. Quote I am not here to support dualism or trialism or whatever is religious theology about trinity and so. I am going to look at text itself and to possibilities they offer. Oh, i think all of us are biased to some degree. But yes. What does the text say is the question. Quote 1) when Jesus said Father is greater than I, we can take in context place and moment. Jesus, as His son, but also as son of his human mother, speaking from position of body and blood, a human on Earth. As perfect human individual in the body, he was also more than mere perfect human. He was only begotten Son, Firstborn of all. As perfect human, similar to Adam, because he represented Adam, he was correctly made statement how his Father is greater. Not only in aspects of his human condition at that moment, but also in regard spiritual position, Father - Son position. Again, In John 14:28 Jesus is not speaking about His nature or being (Christ had earlier said in John 10:30, ‘I and the Father are one’), but about His lowly position of incarnation as a man. The Athanasian Creed says that Christ is ‘equal to the Father as touching His Godhood, and inferior to the Father as touching His manhood’. Christ was here contrasting His human humiliation, shame, suffering, rejection, opposition by enemies, and soon crucifixion, with the Father’s majesty, glory and worship by the angels in heaven. Jesus said, ‘The Father is greater (Greek: meizon) than I’, not ‘The Father is better (Greek: kreitton) than I’. ‘Greater’ refers to the Father’s greater position (in heaven), not to a greater nature. If the word ‘better’ had been used, this would indicate that the Father had a better nature than Jesus. ‘In view of greater (meaning higher in position) and better (meaning higher in nature), is it not clear that in John 14:28 Jesus is speaking of the Father’s temporary higher position and not his higher nature than Jesus? QUESTION: How did Christ make Himself of no reputation when He became a man? (Phil. 2:6-9) 1. He veiled His preincarnate glory in order to dwell among men, but never surrendered His deity or divine glory. On the Mount Transfiguration He allowed His glory to shine briefly. If Christ had not veiled His glory, mankind would not have been able to look at Him. When John saw His glory on Patmos he said, ‘I fell at His feet as dead’. (Rev. 1:17). 2. He submitted to a voluntary non use of some of His divine attributes (on some occasions) in order to achieve His objectives. He never surrendered His attributes, but He did voluntarily cease using some of them on earth. Jesus showed His divine attributes of: i) omniscience (‘He knew all men’ John 2:24; 16:30;‘Lord thou knowest all things.’ 21:17 ii) omnipresence (John 3:13 ‘the Son of man which is in heaven’). As God He was everywhere at once, but as man He chose to walk there. iii) omnipotence (Matthew 28:18 ‘all power is given unto me’.) 3. He condescended to take on the likeness (form, appearance) of man and the form of a servant. (Phil 2:7). His becoming a man involved gaining human attributes (subject to weakness, pain, sorrow and temptation), but not giving up his divine attributes. Conclusion: ‘The Father is greater than I’ (John 14:28) said Jesus from the vantage point of His incarnation as a man. This verse relates to Christ’s voluntary subordination to the Father to accomplish His work on earth.‘Greater than’ refers to His greater position not His nature. Quote 2) in speaking about Temple i would not use this verse to prove who resurrected who, or who are in position to do such act. In verse is clearly said who have power and ability to raise Temple in the 3 days. Jesus made undoubted claim how HE is individual who will going to do this if somebody destroy Temple (literal or spiritual Temple, it is not matter) Yes, it DOES matter. the word can ONLY mean a literal, physical BODY This verse certainly DOES say that Jesus said He would raise HIMSELF UP after 3 days of being dead. So, was Jesus lying? Quote If Jesus is not only copy or clone of perfect Adam but much, much more, i not see obstacle to take in possibility how most powerful person in Universe, after Father, is able to made resurrection of human body. Because Jesus was in fact spirit in human body. His life was originated from spiritual place. Yes, God the father DID raise Jesus. But here Jesus says that HE HIMSELF will do it. Was Jesus lying? ‘I will raise it up . . . he spake of the temple of his body.’ - John 2:19-21 ‘Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up (v.19). But he spake of the temple of his body.’ (v.21) Jesus here promised that He Himself would raise up His own body after three days. Notice how Jesus uses the word ‘body’ meaning a bodily resurrection, not a spiritual resurrection. Quote 3) Spirit of God and Spirit of Jesus is interesting terminology. And both are powerful for same task - resurrection. Jesus said to her, “I am the resurrection and the life. The one who believes in me will live, even though they die; and whoever lives by believing in me will never die. Do you believe this?” - John 11 This two Spirits are so close and connected that it is understandable why Jesus said: I and the Father are one, the same. .... Father is in me, and I in the Father. - John 10 ... I am the Life - John 14 Just some verses for further research. I am not stating anything.