Jesus.defender

No, the word is proskynēsatōsan

Good point. As always, the average brainwashed Jehovahs Witness is not programmed to THINK, but simply regurgitate the lies they have been told by the watchtower. Notice He/She totally FAILED to address ANY point i quoted? 1983 "Avoid independent thinking...questioning the counsel that is provided by God's visible organization." (Watchtower, Jan. 15, 1983 pg. 22) 1983 "Fight against independent thinking." (Watchtower, Jan. 15, 1983 pg. 27 )

You dont reply to a question with another question. Address the questions, please.

The New Testament always lifts up Jesus Christ’s name, not Jehovah’s name. Why? Because Jesus Christ is Jehovah God on earth. Christ is 100% God and 100% man. Q1: In whose name should we meet together? ‘Where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them.’ (Matthew 18:20) Q2: Demons were cast out by the authority of whose name? ‘Paul.....said to the spirit, I command thee in the name of Jesus Christ to come out of her.’ (Acts 16:18) Q3: In whose name should we preach repentance and forgiveness of sins? ‘And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations. And ye are witnesses of these things.’ (Luke 24:47,48) Q4: In whose name are we to believe and receive forgiveness of sins? ‘....through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.’ (Acts 10:43, John 1:12) Q5: By whose name, and no other, do we obtain salvation? Acts 4:10,12 says: ‘by the name of Jesus Christ ... Neither is there salvation in any other, for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.’ Q6: In whose name should we pray? John 16:23,24; 14:13,14; 15:16 says: ‘Whatsoever ye shall ask the Father in my name, he will give it you.’ Q7: In whose name is the Holy Spirit sent? ‘But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name......’ (John 14:26) Q8: In whose name and authority did the disciples heal the sick? ‘His name through faith in his name hath made this man strong’ (Acts 3:16; 4:30) Q9: Whose name did Paul say that we are to call upon? ‘ all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord.’ (I Cor 1:2) Q10: Whose name is above every name? ‘God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name .... that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord.’(Phil 2:9-11) Paul’s quote about Christ is from Isaiah 45:22-24 where every knee will bow to Jehovah. What is true about Jehovah, is also true of Christ, the Lord of all mankind Q11: According to Acts 1:8, of whom are we to be witnesses? ‘Ye shall be witnesses unto me (Jesus)’ Q12: In whose name were believers baptized? ‘they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus’. (Acts 8:16; 2:38) Q13: In whose name were believers designated? ‘the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch’. (Acts 11:26) Q14: In whose name did the apostles speak? ‘Commanded them not to speak at all nor teach in the name of Jesus’ Acts 4:17,18 Q15: In whose name did early Christians suffer? Acts 15:26 says: ‘Men that have hazarded their lives for the name of our Lord Jesus Christ.’ ‘rejoicing that they were counted worthy to suffer shame for his name’Acts 5:41;9:16 Q16: Whose name was Paul to carry? ‘Lord said: He is a chosen vessel unto me, to bear my name before the Gentiles, kings, and the children of Israel.’ (Acts 9:15) Q17: In whose name did Paul deliver a man to Satan? ‘In the name of our Lord Jesus Christ...to deliver such an one to Satan.’ I Cor 5:4,5 Q18: In whose name did the apostles teach? Acts 5:28; 8:12 says: ‘Did we not straitly command you that ye should not teach in this name?’

John 1:1 Is Jesus Christ ‘a god’ or ‘God’? Watchtower Teaching: The NWT translates the first ‘θεος’ in John 1:1 as ‘God’, and the second ‘θεος’ as ‘a god’. In the Greek, there is a definite article ‘the’ (‘ό ’) before the first occurrence of God (ό θεος = the God). However, there is no definite article ‘the’ before the second occurrence of ‘God’. The Watchtower argues (falsely) that, when a noun has a definite article (like ‘ό θεος’), it points to an identity or personality, such as the person of Jehovah God. The WT claims (falsely) that the same phrase (‘ό θεος’) is never used of Jesus Christ in the NT (Watchtower, 1 July 86, p31). (Note: ‘ό θεος’ is used of Christ in Matthew 1:23, John 20:28 and Hebrews 1:8). The Watchtower claims (falsely) that when a singular predicate noun has no definite article, and it occurs before a verb (as theos in John 1:1c), then it points to a quality about someone, so that here it says that Jesus (the Word) has a divine quality, but is not God Almighty (KIT, p.1139). They alone translate Jesus as ‘a god’. To support this view they quote: i) Johannes Greber NT (1937), a SPIRITIST who claimed that spirits helped him translate the NT (Watchtower, 15 September 62, p.554; 15 October 73, p.640). The WT KNEW he was a spiritist in 1956 (Watchtower, 15 February 1956, p 110, 111), yet they still quoted him. ii) Dr Julius Mantey, who REFUTES their translation saying: ‘They have forgotten entirely what the (word) order of the sentence indicates that the “ λογος” (“logos” or “Word” in English) has the same substance, nature or essence as the Father. To indicate that Jesus was “a god” would need a completely different construction in the Greek. They misquoted me in support of their translation. 99% of Greek scholars and Bible translators in the world DISAGREE with JWs.’ Bible Teaching: The NWT is wrong in translating John 1:1 as ‘a god’ for these reasons: 1. JWs claim that, because the second ‘θεος’ (theos) has no definite article, we should translate it as ‘a god’. (Kingdom Interlinear Translation, p 1139). Then why has the NWT JW version broken their rule four times in John 1:6, 12, 13, 18 by translating ‘θεος’ with no article as ‘God’? They are inconsistent, as seen below: Verse 1: Verse 6: Verse 12: Verse 13: Verse 18: If the NWT was consistent, they should translate ‘θεος’ as ‘a god’ in these cases too: v. 6 ‘There was a man sent from a god.’ v.12 ‘to them gave he power to become the children of a god.’ v.13 ‘nor of the will of man, but of a god.’ v.18 ‘no man hath seen a god at any time.’ This is clearly wrong and ridiculous. Why only in verse one do they refuse to translate ‘θεος’ as ‘God’? Because they don’t want Christ to be Jehovah God. The Watchtower’s mistranslation of John 1:1 is not supported by any Greek grammar textbook. Many other verses have ‘θεος’ + no article, and yet are correctly translated as ‘God’, such as Matthew 5:9; 6:24; Luke 1:35, 78; 2:40; John 3:2, 21; 9:16, 33; I Corinthians 1:30; 15:10; Philippians 2:11,13; Titus 1:1; Romans 1:17, 18. 2. JWs say that by translating ‘θεος’ as ‘a god’, then Christ is a lesser god, a divine person. Answer: If John had intended this adjectival sense (ie ‘the Word was divine’), he had an adjective θειος (theios=godlike2304) available to use as found in II Peter 1:3, 4 (‘divine power’ and ‘divine nature’), if Christ was just a divine lesser god. Instead, John uses ‘θεος’ meaning ‘God’. Spiros Zodhiates, in his book Was Christ God? ( p.102), states assertively: ‘It would, therefore, be totally wrong to translate the statement that John makes in John 1:1 as “the Word was divine”. The word which is used in the original Greek is θεος (theos) “God”, not θειος (theios) “divine”. Jesus Christ did not merely have divine attributes, but He was God in His essence and nature. He was not a man who attained divinity, but God who humbled Himself to take upon Himself human nature in addition to His deity.’ 3. Contrary to the Watchtower claim, ‘θεος’ (God) with the definite article (‘ό’) is used of Jesus Christ in the New Testament: i) John 20:28. ii) Matthew 1:23. iii) Hebrews 1:8. Hence, the same word ‘ό θεος’ (ho theos) used of the Father is also used of Christ. 4. JWs say that Jesus is ‘a god’. Jehovah disagrees with them in Isaiah 44:8 by saying: ‘Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any.’ (KJV and NWT). Jehovah says that there is no ‘a God’ beside Him. This shows John 1:1 in the NWT to be wrong. Hence, Jesus cannot be ‘a God’, so He must be ‘the God’. 5. Ancient UNCIAL Greek manuscripts were all written in capital letters, so one could not distinguish between ‘God’ and ‘god’, except by the context, and whether the writer believed in one true God or in more than one god. Ask: Did the Apostle John believe in one true God or more than one true God? Since John believed in one true God, we conclude that Jesus is the one true God in John 1:1. 6. JWs say that Jesus is ‘a god’ with Jehovah, as seen from ‘the Word was with God.’ They say that if Christ is ‘with’ God, He cannot be God. Answer: ‘with’ (Greek ‘ προς’) means that Christ was so intimately connected with God, that He is God. ‘There are no gods together with me’. (Deuteronomy 32:39 NWT) ‘There is no god with me.’ (Deuteronomy 32:39 KJV) Hence, Jehovah says that there are no gods with Jehovah, so Christ must be Jehovah God. 7. Every Greek scholar in the world is against the NWT translation of John 1:1 ‘the word was a god’. Examples include: M.R.Vincent: ‘The λογος (logos) of John is the real personal God’.(Word Studies in Gk N,T ,p.383) K.Wuest: ‘The Word was as to His essence absolute deity’.(Word Studies in Gk.NT p 209) A.T.Robertson: ‘the Word was God, of Divine nature; not “a god”.’(Expositors Gk Testmnt, p.684) Spiros Zodhiates: ‘In John 1:1, Jesus Christ in His pre-incarnate state is called the Word, presenting as the second person of the Godhead.’ (NT Word Study Dictionary, p 935) W.E.Vine: ‘the λογος (logos), the Word, the personal manifestation, not of a part of the divine nature, but of the whole deity.’ (Complete Expository Dictionary of NT Words, p683) 8. All other gods are false gods. Hence, Jesus Christ in John 1:1 must be either the only true God Jehovah or a false god. Which one? 9. Church Writers writing before 325 AD all agree that John 1:1 is ‘the Word was God’, and that it means that Jesus is fully God and man. This verse was never disputed before the occultist Greber’s NT was published in 1937. Notice 12 Church writers before 325 AD who all quote John 1:1 correctly as ‘the Word was God’. Question: Why do NONE of them quote it as ‘a god’? • These early Church writers knew Greek as their mother tongue and first language, • These men often were quoting from the original autographs. 1) Irenaeus, (120-202 AD) Vol 1, p 328,Vol 1, p 428,Vol 1, p 546 2) Theophilus of Antioch (115-181 AD)Vol 2, p 103, 3) Clement of Alexandria (153-217 AD) Vol 2, p 173, 4) Tertullian (145-220 AD), Vol 3 p 488, p 489, p 602, p 607 5) Origen (185-254 AD), Vol.4 p 262, Origen de Principiis p 291, p 553 Origen against Celsus p 603, p 642, 6) Cyprian (200-258 AD), Vol 5 p 516, p 518 7) Novatian (210-280 AD), Vol 5, p 624,p 624, p 642 8) Hippolytus (170-236 AD), Vol 5, p.288. 9) Thaumaturgus (205 AD), Vol 6,p.69 10) Methodius (260-312 AD), Vol 6,p.381. 11) Alexander (273-326 AD),Vol 6,p.292 12) Tatian’s Diatessaron (150 AD), Vol 10, p 43 Note: Compare these quotes by Ante-Nicene Church fathers which contradict the Watchtower’s invented quotes of Church fathers on p7 of ‘Should you believe in the Trinity?’ 10. TheWatchtower’s Kingdom Interlinear Translation (KIT, p.401) quote of John 1:1, in the left hand column has ‘god was the Word’, which CONTRADICTS the right hand column NWT translation which says ‘the word was a god’. Hence the Word (Christ who became flesh, v.14) is called ‘God’ on the LHS of the page, and ‘a god’ on the RHS of the page. 11. Greek grammar rules out ‘a god’. JWs say that for Jesus to be Jehovah God here, there should be the definite article ‘the’ (Greek ‘ό’) before God (θεος). Because ‘θεος’ does not have the definite article ‘ό’ before it, JWs conclude that ‘the word’ was indefinite, and means ‘a god’. Answer: A.T. Robertson Greek authority says (A Grammar of Greek NT, p.767): ‘Nouns in the Predicate: The article is not essential to speech....The word with the article (“ό”) is then the subject of the sentence, whatever the word order may be. So in John 1:1, “ ό λογος” , the subject is perfectly clear (“the word” = “ό λογος”, and it can only be “the word was God”.’ Key: Hence the article ‘the’ (ό) points out the subject (ό λογος) of the clause, and points out the predicate (θεος ) without the article. If John had written ‘ό θεος ην ό λογος’ as the JWs would want, then John would be teaching false doctrine of Sabellianism (that Christ is all of God, that God and Christ are interchangeable, that the Father was the one who became incarnate, suffered and died). Note: If the article is used with both the subject (ie. λογος ) and the predicate (ie. θεος), they would then be interchangeable as the subject nouns are in I John 3:4 (η αµαρτια εστιν η ανοµια) then both ‘sin is transgression’ and ‘transgression is sin’ are true’. But in I John 4:16, ‘ ’ can only be ‘God is Love’, not ‘Love is God’ (because the article points out the subject). If the Greek language allowed us to say ‘Love is God’ just as readily as ‘God is Love’ in this verse, then God would not be a person, but just an abstract quality. (see Was Christ God?, Spiros Zodhiates, p.98). Conclusion: Hence, the absence of the definite artice ‘?’ in John 1:1 is deliberate in order to identify ‘the Word’ as the subject of the sentence and to make it only to read as ‘the Word was God’. It has nothing to do with Christ being a lesser god as the JWs claim. Hence, contrary to the NWT and The Emphatic Diaglott, the Greek grammatical construction leaves no doubt whatsoever that ‘the Word was God’ is the only possible rendering of the text.

Well, i dont think they said which, they implied ALL Bibles are guilty of it.

We are talking about the KJV, not the NKJV. Show me PROOF that Gods name was REMOVED from the KJV. Show me WHEN it was removed, WHO removed it and the ORIGINAL that shows it in there.

But you JWS say that it was removed from the KJV.

The point is, Jehovahs Witnesses cannot PROVE that Gods' name was removed.

THE TRINITY OF THE GODHEAD SEEN IN NATURE. Question: How is the Trinity of the Godhead seen in nature as in Romans 1:20 ‘for the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse. Answer: a) We see God’s eternal power in earthquakes, volcanoes, wind, millions of stars, galaxies, waves, floods, lightning, sun, moon, nuclear bombs, etc. b) We see the Trinity of the Godhead with so many things coming in ‘threes’, reminding us of Father, Son, Holy Spirit, all three members of the creator Godhead. Examples include: 1) The Physical Universe: Space, mass, time. 2) Space: 3 dimensions of space are: length, breadth, height. 3) Mass: 3 phases of matter are: solid, liquid, gas. 4) Time: 3 tenses of time are: past, present, future. 5) Light: 3 directions of light wave oscillation are: horizontal, vertical, back and forward. 6) Colours: 3 primary colours of light are: red, blue, yellow. 7) Kingdoms: 3 Kingdoms are: Animal, vegetable, mineral. 8) Animal: 3 main kinds of Animal are: fish, bird, land animals. 9) Minerals: 3 main kinds of Minerals are: igneous, sedimentary, metamorphic. 10) Heavens: 3 heavens are: atmosphere, space, God’s throne. 11) Man: 3 components of Man are: body, soul (personality), spirit. (I Thess. 5:23). 12) Divine institutions: 3 Divine institutions are: marriage, human government, church. 13) Musical notes: 3 notes make up a musical chord. 14) Sub-atomic particles: 3 main sub-atomic particles are: proton, electron, neutron,. 15) Mankind: 3 divisions of the human race: Jew, Gentile, Church of God. (I Cor.10:32).

Will the men of Sodom be resurrected? Yes....Watchtower 7/1879 page 8 No.....Watchtower 6/1/52 page 338 Yes....Watchtower 8/1/65, page 479 No.....Watchtower 6/1/88, page 31 Yes...Live Forever (old Ed.) page 179 No....Live Forever (new Ed.) page 179 Yes...Insight, vol. 2., page 985 No...Revelation book, page 273. These changes are more like flashing lights, on and off again. How can they be trusted?

First off, WHY are you using a Bible translation that you do not believe in or use? Key words in your prophecy is " and the evidence" Where was this evidence?

You are using a different word. a PROPHET and a PROPHECY are two different things. a Prophet can either 1) speak for God ( for want of a better phrase ) or 2) Predict an upcoming event like YOU guys did in 1914, 1918, 1923, 1925, 1875, etc. to "prophesy" does not mean the person is a "prophet" as such. In 1889, the WT said " we present PROOFS that the setting up of the kingdon of God has already begun...and that 'the battle of the great day of God almighty' (Revelation16:14),which will end in AD1914 with the complete overthrow of the earth's present rulership, is already commenced.". So, the WT presented "proofs". These "proofs" were wrong, so what credibility do they have to "proclaim" anything?

I sure do have proof. i think it is VERY important to be able to back up what you say. "Logically, the calling of the little flock would draw to a close when the number was nearing completion, and the evidence is that the general gathering of these specially blessed ones ended in 1935."Watchtower 1995 Feb 15 p.19

1888 "In this chapter we present the Bible evidence proving that the full end of the times of the gentiles, i.e., the full end of their lease of dominion, will be reached in A.D. 1914; and that the date will be the farthest limit of the rule of imperfect men. And be it observed, that if this is shown to be a fact firmly established by the Scriptures, it will prove; Firstly, that at that date the Kingdom of God, for which our Lord taught us to pray, saying, Thy Kingdom come, will obtain full, universal control, and that it will then be set up, or firmly established, in the earth, on the ruins of present institutions." (The Time Is At Hand, 1888, p. 76, 77) 1968 "'Adam Created At Close Of 'Sixth Day' Are we to assume from this study that the battle of Armageddon will be all over by the autumn of 1975, and the long-looked-for thousand-year reign of Christ will begin by then? Possibly, but we wait to see how closely the seventh thousand-year period of man's existence coincides with the Sabbath-like thousand-year reign of Christ....It may involve only a difference of weeks or months, not years.' (Watchtower, Aug. 15, 1968, p. 499)

1888 "In this chapter we present the Bible evidence proving that the full end of the times of the gentiles, i.e., the full end of their lease of dominion, will be reached in A.D. 1914; and that the date will be the farthest limit of the rule of imperfect men. And be it observed, that if this is shown to be a fact firmly established by the Scriptures, it will prove; Firstly, that at that date the Kingdom of God, for which our Lord taught us to pray, saying, Thy Kingdom come, will obtain full, universal control, and that it will then be set up, or firmly established, in the earth, on the ruins of present institutions." (The Time Is At Hand, 1888, p. 76, 77) 1889 "Be not surprised, then, when in subsequent chapters we present proofs that the setting up of the Kingdom of God is already begun, that it is pointed out in prophecy as due to begin the exercise of power in A.D. 1878, and that the 'battle of the great day of God Almighty (Rev. 16:14) which will end in A.D. 1914 with the complete overthrow of earth's present rulership, is already commenced. The gathering of the armies is plainly visible from the standpoint of God's word." (Studies in the Scriptures, Vol. 2, The Time Is At Hand, 1889 Ed., p. 101. The 1915 Edition of this texts changed "A.D. 1914" to read 'A.D. 1915')

No, they didnt destroy the British. THEY won. FAILED PROPHECY!

But they DID teach it as a prophecy. So, the big question is, if they have been wrong in the past, how do you know they are right now? How do you know that in 5 years time, they wont say that John 1:1 actually DOES read what Christians have ALWAYS said it reads?

Why did Armageddon fail to come in 1975 as the Watchtower predicted? In Kingdom Ministry, May 1974, the world’s end was said to be ‘so very near’ that JWs were commended who sold ‘their homes and property’ to devote themselves to full-time service in ‘the short time remaining before the wicked world’s end’. (p 3) In 1975 they said, ‘The fulfillment . . . is immediately ahead of us.’ (Man’s Salvation out of World Distress at Hand, p 312) In 1975 they said, ‘Very short must be the time that remains . . .’.’ (Ibid p 349) 1975 came and went, thus discouraging and embarrassing the WT and JWs. Yet from 1976 to today the WT still says Armageddon and the end of the world is very near. Conclusion: If the WT has been wrong on every prediction, how can anybody trust it? Question: Why has the WT missed the date of Armageddon every time it predicted it? The WT has not only lied to people they call ‘God’s enemies’, but they have lied to their own people. After reading these WT false prophecies, and its own admission that it lied, how can the WT be trusted any more? Has the Watchtower ever lied, covered up, or changed doctrines and dates? If God speaks through the WT, then He must change His mind very often. Consider the following changes in dates, prophecies and doctrines: 1. They changed the beginning of the ‘time of the end’ from 1799 to 1914; 2. They changed the date of the second coming of Christ from 1874 to 1914; 3. They changed the nature of Christ’s return from earthly visible to heavenly and invisible; 4. They changed the end of the 6000 years of creation from 1872 to 1975; 5. They changed vaccination from being forbidden to being permitted; 6. They changed the ‘Faithful and wise servant’ from C T Russell to the WT Society; 7. They changed from allowing worship of Jesus to forbidding it; 8. They changed their view of Israel from literal national to spiritual of all believers. Why so many changes? Answer: Since the predicted events didn’t happen, they covered up their false prophecies to hide the fact that God really hadn’t spoken through the Watchtower Society. Do their false prophecies support their claim of spiritual enlightenment and guidance? What a joke! The WT Society has mislead millions of people in claiming it is God’s sole channel of communication on earth today. Rutherford believed that God’s Holy Spirit had ceased to function as his teacher, and had been replaced by angels who taught him in his mind.(WT, Sept 1,1930,p.263 & Feb 1,1935,p.41) Today the leaders claim that both the Holy Spirit, and angels communicate information to them. (WT, March 1, 1972, p.155 and Aug 1, 1987, p.19) Conclusion: False prophecies lead us to conclude that the Watchtower is receiving its information from demons, rather than from God.

From 1940-43, the Watchtower made 44 predictions of the immanence of Armageddon. Why did they fail? Consider these examples: In September 1940 they said, ‘The kingdom is here, the king is enthroned. Armageddon is just ahead ...The great climax has been reached.’(The Messenger, September 1940,p 6) They said, ‘The Final End is Very Near’. (The Watchtower, Sept. 15, 1941 p 276). ‘The remaining months before Armageddon . . .’ (p 288) They said, ‘The time is at hand for Jesus Christ to take possession of all things’. (The Watchtower, January 15, 1942 p 28) On May 1, 1942 they said, ‘Now, with Armageddon immediately before us . . .’ (p 139) On May 1, 1943 they said, ‘The final end of all things . . . is at hand’.’ (p139) On September 1, 1944 they said, ‘Armageddon is near at hand’. (p 264) In 1946, ‘The disaster of Armageddon . . . is at the door’. (Let God be True 1946, p 194) In 1950 they said, ‘The March is on! Where? To the field of Armageddon for the ‘war of the great day of God the Almighty’’. (This Means Everlasting Life, 1950, p 311) In 1953 they said, ‘Armageddon is so near at hand it will strike the generation now living’. (You May Survive Armageddon speech p 11) In 1955 they said, ‘It is becoming clear that the war of Armageddon is near its breaking out point’. (Ibid p 331) In 1958 they said, ‘When will Armageddon be fought? . . . It will be very soon’.’ (From Paradise Lost to Paradise Regained, 1958, p 205) JW leaders in Awake magazine, 8 October, 1968,. p 23 admitted that certain persons had falsely predicted the end of the world. They asked why these false prophecies were given. Here they admit that they themselves were false prophets, that they lacked God’s guidance, and were lying: ‘True, there have been those in times past who predicted an “end to the world”, even announcing a specific date. The “end” did not come. They were guilty of false prophesying. Why? What was missing? . . . Missing from such people were God’s truths and the evidence that He was guiding and using them.’(Awake, 8 Oct.,1968, p.23) Note: Deuteronomy 18:20-22 states that false prophets must die.

Where does the NT tell us to name the name of Jehovah?

Do you believe Jesus was resurrected?

No, you didnt. you just pointed to a robotic watchtower statement. they DID set this date, now they say they cant set it. duh! they already set it! The doctrine introduced by Judge Joseph Rutherford, second President of the Watchtower said from 1935 onward, “At the end of May of that year a five-day convention of Jehovah’s Christian Witnesses was in session... the president of the Watchtower Bible and Tract Society discussed the subject of 'the great multitude, 'spoken of in Revelation 7.9-17, Authorized Version. He made it clear that the 'multitude' was no spiritual or spirit begotten class, would not attain the angelic nature in heaven so as to assist the 144,000 joint heirs with Christ. It was a distinctly an earthly class with hope of endless perfect human life in the earthly paradise under Christ's kingdom” (Holy Spirit, 1976, p. 156)

How do you prove from the Bible that 1935 was the year for the selection to heaven stopped due to being filled? What is the difference between a Catholic appealing to "what the organization tells him" about December 25 being the date of Jesus' birthday and a Jw' appealing to "what the organization tells him" about the date 1935? Is it not hypocritical when you chide the "poor deluded Catholic" that his faith cannot find a Bible passage to support it, when the same goes for you and 1935?