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  1. Member “Witness” at this forum has taken exception to the NWT’s rendering of 2 Cor. 5:20 as “substitutes for Christ”:
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    She states, “There is only one translation that I have found for 2 Cor 5:20, that throws in the word “substitute” – not just once, but twice – the NWT.” What's the real story here? Is there any justification for the idea of substitution for Christ in this verse? A short one-page essay is attached. 2 Cor 5.20.pdf
  2. Does anybody knows when the Revised Bible in Spanish will be available? Thanks
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  4. Yesterday was the release of the NWT in Tahitian! Talk was given by Geoffrey Jackson
  5. Presentation of the Greek NWT in Valencian / Catalan this past weekend A Wonderful and Unexpected Gift from Jehovah
  6. The New Testament always lifts up Jesus Christ’s name, not Jehovah’s name. Why? Because Jesus Christ is Jehovah God on earth. Christ is 100% God and 100% man. Q1: In whose name should we meet together? ‘Where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them.’ (Matthew 18:20) Q2: Demons were cast out by the authority of whose name? ‘Paul.....said to the spirit, I command thee in the name of Jesus Christ to come out of her.’ (Acts 16:18) Q3: In whose name should we preach repentance and forgiveness of sins? ‘And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations. And ye are witnesses of these things.’ (Luke 24:47,48) Q4: In whose name are we to believe and receive forgiveness of sins? ‘....through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.’ (Acts 10:43, John 1:12) Q5: By whose name, and no other, do we obtain salvation? Acts 4:10,12 says: ‘by the name of Jesus Christ ... Neither is there salvation in any other, for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.’ Q6: In whose name should we pray? John 16:23,24; 14:13,14; 15:16 says: ‘Whatsoever ye shall ask the Father in my name, he will give it you.’ Q7: In whose name is the Holy Spirit sent? ‘But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name......’ (John 14:26) Q8: In whose name and authority did the disciples heal the sick? ‘His name through faith in his name hath made this man strong’ (Acts 3:16; 4:30) Q9: Whose name did Paul say that we are to call upon? ‘ all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord.’ (I Cor 1:2) Q10: Whose name is above every name? ‘God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name .... that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord.’(Phil 2:9-11) Paul’s quote about Christ is from Isaiah 45:22-24 where every knee will bow to Jehovah. What is true about Jehovah, is also true of Christ, the Lord of all mankind Q11: According to Acts 1:8, of whom are we to be witnesses? ‘Ye shall be witnesses unto me (Jesus)’ Q12: In whose name were believers baptized? ‘they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus’. (Acts 8:16; 2:38) Q13: In whose name were believers designated? ‘the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch’. (Acts 11:26) Q14: In whose name did the apostles speak? ‘Commanded them not to speak at all nor teach in the name of Jesus’ Acts 4:17,18 Q15: In whose name did early Christians suffer? Acts 15:26 says: ‘Men that have hazarded their lives for the name of our Lord Jesus Christ.’ ‘rejoicing that they were counted worthy to suffer shame for his name’Acts 5:41;9:16 Q16: Whose name was Paul to carry? ‘Lord said: He is a chosen vessel unto me, to bear my name before the Gentiles, kings, and the children of Israel.’ (Acts 9:15) Q17: In whose name did Paul deliver a man to Satan? ‘In the name of our Lord Jesus Christ...to deliver such an one to Satan.’ I Cor 5:4,5 Q18: In whose name did the apostles teach? Acts 5:28; 8:12 says: ‘Did we not straitly command you that ye should not teach in this name?’
  7. HOLY SPIRIT: Is He a PERSON or an ACTIVE FORCE? II Cor 3:17 Watchtower Teaching: The WT claims that the HS is neither a person nor God, but an impersonal ‘active force’ to achieve God’s will, like electricity or radio waves. Bible Teaching: The Holy Spirit is fully God and has personality as He can be blasphemed. The Holy Spirit has the three attributes of personality, those being: mind, emotions and will. An ‘active force’ does not have personal attributes. The WT’s claim of the Holy Spirit being an active force is disproven if the Bible teaches that the Holy Spirit has mind,emotions & will. 1. The Holy Spirit has a mind. (1) ‘He that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit’. (Romans 8:27). The word ‘mind’ means ‘way of thinking’, something which is only true of a person. (2) ‘The things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God.’ (I Corinthians 2:11). QUESTION: How can the Holy Spirit know the things of God if the Spirit does not have a mind? A force does not know things. To know requires a mind. (3) The Spirit searcheth all things’ (I Corinthians 2:10). The Greek word for ‘search’ means to thoroughly investigate a matter, something only a mind can do. 2) The Holy Spirit has emotions (4) The Holy Spirit loves: ‘I beseech you..through the love of the Spirit’.(Rom 15:30 NWT). (5) ‘Grieve not the Holy Spirit of God’. (Ephesians 4:30) The Holy Spirit is grieved (made sad) when believers sin. Grief is an emotion that one feels. A force can’t be grieved. 3) The Holy Spirit has a will. He performs personal acts. (6) The Holy Spirit distributes spiritual gifts ‘to every man severally as he will.’(I Cor.12:11) The phrase ‘he wills’ in Greek means ‘a decision of the will after previous deliberation’. The Holy Spirit chooses which gifts each believer receives. A force has no such will, nor ability to make decisions. (7) The Holy Spirit commands: ‘The Spirit bade me go with them’ (Acts 11:12) (8) The Holy Spirit forbids:‘forbidden of the Holy Ghost to preach the word in Asia’.Acts 16:6 (9) The Holy Spirit speaks: ‘The Spirit said to Philip, Go near.’ (Acts 8:29) ‘The Holy Ghost said, separate me Barnabus and Saul’. (Acts 13:2) ‘The Spirit speaketh expressly’. (I Timothy 4:1). QUESTION: How do you explain the WT view of the Holy Spirit being an impersonal force, with the Bible’s teaching that the Holy Spirit has a mind that can know, emotions that can feel love and grief, and a will to make decisions? (10) The Holy Spirit testifies: ‘He shall testify of me’. (John 15:26). The same Greek word for testify (or bear witness) used here, is also used of: a) The disciples testifying about Christ in John 15:27. b) John the Baptist bearing witness to the truth in John 5:33. c) God the Father bore witness to Cornelius’ (and Gentiles’) conversion by giving them the Holy Spirit. (Acts 15:8) Just as the disciples, John and God the Father (who are all persons) testified or bore witness, so the Holy Spirit bears witness about Christ. A force cannot bear witness, only a person can. (The Holy Spirit bears witness in heaven and on earth - I John 5:7,8) (11) The Holy Spirit intercedes or prays for believers.‘The Spirit itself makes intercession for us with groanings’. (Romans 8:26). Just as Jesus Christ (a person) intercedes for believers (Romans 8:34; Hebrews 7:25), so the Holy Spirit (as a person) intercedes (same Greek word) for believers. A force cannot pray for another; only a person can pray. (12) The Holy Spirit teaches believers. (‘he shall teach you all things’. John 14:26) (13) The Holy Spirit hears. ‘Whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak.’ (John 16:13) (14) The Holy Spirit shows us things. ‘he....shall show it unto you’. (John 16:15) (15) The Holy Spirit restrains sin. ‘My Spirit shall not always strive with man’(Genesis 6:3) (16) The Holy Spirit can be blasphemed.‘he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost’.Mk3:29 People cannot be blasphemed. We can only be slandered. Only God can be blasphemed. By Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit being blasphemed means we’ve proved the Trinity. (a) God the Father can be blasphemed. (Revelation 13:6; 16:9) (b) God the Son can be blasphemed. (Luke 22:65) ‘And many other things blasphemously they spake against him’. (c) God the Holy Spirit can be blasphemed. (Matthew 12:31) ‘Blasphemy against the Holy Spirit shall not be forgiven unto men.’ (17) The Holy Spirit can be lied to (Acts 5:3). Ananias and Sapphira lied to the Holy Spirit. QUESTION: Have you ever lied to electricity and asked electricity to forgive you? (18) The Holy Spirit cries in our hearts, Abba, Father. (Galatians 4:6) (19) The Holy Spirit approves some decisions: ‘It seemed good to the Holy Ghost and to us’. (Acts 15:28) (20) The Holy Spirit invites people to be saved:‘The Spirit & the bride say Come’Rev 22:17 (21) The Holy Spirit fills us (Ephesians 5:18) just as God may fill us (Ephesians 3:19). (22) The Holy Spirit uses personal pronouns to describe Himself: John 15:26; 16:13;(he): ‘The Holy Spirit said, Separate me Barnabus. . .’ (Acts 13:2). The Holy Spirit considers Himself a person, not a personification. Watchtower Objection: The main reason the JWs say that the Holy Spirit is an ‘active force’ is because the Greek word for ‘spirit’ (pneuma) is neuter. Answer: This is faulty reasoning, because 1)the gender of a word relates to the grammatical form of the word, not to its sex or physical gender. Because a word is grammatically neuter does not mean that the object is an ‘it’ or of neuter sex. (Source: Elements of NT Greek, J W Wenham, 1979, p.8). For example, in Greek, ‘children’ is a neuter word, ‘desert’ is a feminine word, etc.and 2) In John 15:26 and 16:13, the neuter noun ‘pneuma’ is referred to by the masculine pronoun ‘ekeinos’ (1565=that one, masculine) recognising the Holy Spirit’s masculine personality. ‘He (ekeinos) shall testify of me’ (15:26); ‘when he (ekeinos), the Spirit of truth shall come’ (16:13). Note: ‘ekeine’ is feminine ‘that one’, and ‘ekeino’ is neuter). (23) The Holy Spirit comforts (Gk: parakletos) believers. John 14:16, 26; 15:26; 16:7. This same Greek word ‘parakletos’ (3875) is used of Christ who has personality in John 14:16 and I John 2:1. ‘Another Comforter’ (Gk: allos parakletos, John 14:16) means ‘another of the same kind’ as Christ, in contrast to ‘heteros’ (2087) meaning ‘another of a different kind’. As Christ has Deity and Personality, so does the Holy Spirit. To comfort requires empathy, understanding, love, compassion and concern for another’s well-being, all being attributes of personality. Conclusion: Hence,the Holy Spirit is a person because 1) He has mind, emotions,& will. 2) Personal pronouns are used of Him. 3) He performs personal acts.4) He associates with the Father and Son in the Baptism formula, Apostolic benediction and as Church Administrator (I Cor. 12:4-6). 5) He can be personally mistreated (tempted, lied to, grieved, resisted, insulted and blasphemed). The New Testament clearly shows the Holy Spirit to have a personality and to be God. (‘Jehovah is the Spirit’ II Cor. 3:17 NWT).
  8. John 1:1 Is Jesus Christ ‘a god’ or ‘God’? Watchtower Teaching: The NWT translates the first ‘θεος’ in John 1:1 as ‘God’, and the second ‘θεος’ as ‘a god’. In the Greek, there is a definite article ‘the’ (‘ό ’) before the first occurrence of God (ό θεος = the God). However, there is no definite article ‘the’ before the second occurrence of ‘God’. The Watchtower argues (falsely) that, when a noun has a definite article (like ‘ό θεος’), it points to an identity or personality, such as the person of Jehovah God. The WT claims (falsely) that the same phrase (‘ό θεος’) is never used of Jesus Christ in the NT (Watchtower, 1 July 86, p31). (Note: ‘ό θεος’ is used of Christ in Matthew 1:23, John 20:28 and Hebrews 1:8). The Watchtower claims (falsely) that when a singular predicate noun has no definite article, and it occurs before a verb (as theos in John 1:1c), then it points to a quality about someone, so that here it says that Jesus (the Word) has a divine quality, but is not God Almighty (KIT, p.1139). They alone translate Jesus as ‘a god’. To support this view they quote: i) Johannes Greber NT (1937), a SPIRITIST who claimed that spirits helped him translate the NT (Watchtower, 15 September 62, p.554; 15 October 73, p.640). The WT KNEW he was a spiritist in 1956 (Watchtower, 15 February 1956, p 110, 111), yet they still quoted him. ii) Dr Julius Mantey, who REFUTES their translation saying: ‘They have forgotten entirely what the (word) order of the sentence indicates that the “ λογος” (“logos” or “Word” in English) has the same substance, nature or essence as the Father. To indicate that Jesus was “a god” would need a completely different construction in the Greek. They misquoted me in support of their translation. 99% of Greek scholars and Bible translators in the world DISAGREE with JWs.’ Bible Teaching: The NWT is wrong in translating John 1:1 as ‘a god’ for these reasons: 1. JWs claim that, because the second ‘θεος’ (theos) has no definite article, we should translate it as ‘a god’. (Kingdom Interlinear Translation, p 1139). Then why has the NWT JW version broken their rule four times in John 1:6, 12, 13, 18 by translating ‘θεος’ with no article as ‘God’? They are inconsistent, as seen below: Verse 1: Verse 6: Verse 12: Verse 13: Verse 18: If the NWT was consistent, they should translate ‘θεος’ as ‘a god’ in these cases too: v. 6 ‘There was a man sent from a god.’ v.12 ‘to them gave he power to become the children of a god.’ v.13 ‘nor of the will of man, but of a god.’ v.18 ‘no man hath seen a god at any time.’ This is clearly wrong and ridiculous. Why only in verse one do they refuse to translate ‘θεος’ as ‘God’? Because they don’t want Christ to be Jehovah God. The Watchtower’s mistranslation of John 1:1 is not supported by any Greek grammar textbook. Many other verses have ‘θεος’ + no article, and yet are correctly translated as ‘God’, such as Matthew 5:9; 6:24; Luke 1:35, 78; 2:40; John 3:2, 21; 9:16, 33; I Corinthians 1:30; 15:10; Philippians 2:11,13; Titus 1:1; Romans 1:17, 18. 2. JWs say that by translating ‘θεος’ as ‘a god’, then Christ is a lesser god, a divine person. Answer: If John had intended this adjectival sense (ie ‘the Word was divine’), he had an adjective θειος (theios=godlike2304) available to use as found in II Peter 1:3, 4 (‘divine power’ and ‘divine nature’), if Christ was just a divine lesser god. Instead, John uses ‘θεος’ meaning ‘God’. Spiros Zodhiates, in his book Was Christ God? ( p.102), states assertively: ‘It would, therefore, be totally wrong to translate the statement that John makes in John 1:1 as “the Word was divine”. The word which is used in the original Greek is θεος (theos) “God”, not θειος (theios) “divine”. Jesus Christ did not merely have divine attributes, but He was God in His essence and nature. He was not a man who attained divinity, but God who humbled Himself to take upon Himself human nature in addition to His deity.’ 3. Contrary to the Watchtower claim, ‘θεος’ (God) with the definite article (‘ό’) is used of Jesus Christ in the New Testament: i) John 20:28. ii) Matthew 1:23. iii) Hebrews 1:8. Hence, the same word ‘ό θεος’ (ho theos) used of the Father is also used of Christ. 4. JWs say that Jesus is ‘a god’. Jehovah disagrees with them in Isaiah 44:8 by saying: ‘Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any.’ (KJV and NWT). Jehovah says that there is no ‘a God’ beside Him. This shows John 1:1 in the NWT to be wrong. Hence, Jesus cannot be ‘a God’, so He must be ‘the God’. 5. Ancient UNCIAL Greek manuscripts were all written in capital letters, so one could not distinguish between ‘God’ and ‘god’, except by the context, and whether the writer believed in one true God or in more than one god. Ask: Did the Apostle John believe in one true God or more than one true God? Since John believed in one true God, we conclude that Jesus is the one true God in John 1:1. 6. JWs say that Jesus is ‘a god’ with Jehovah, as seen from ‘the Word was with God.’ They say that if Christ is ‘with’ God, He cannot be God. Answer: ‘with’ (Greek ‘ προς’) means that Christ was so intimately connected with God, that He is God. ‘There are no gods together with me’. (Deuteronomy 32:39 NWT) ‘There is no god with me.’ (Deuteronomy 32:39 KJV) Hence, Jehovah says that there are no gods with Jehovah, so Christ must be Jehovah God. 7. Every Greek scholar in the world is against the NWT translation of John 1:1 ‘the word was a god’. Examples include: M.R.Vincent: ‘The λογος (logos) of John is the real personal God’.(Word Studies in Gk N,T ,p.383) K.Wuest: ‘The Word was as to His essence absolute deity’.(Word Studies in Gk.NT p 209) A.T.Robertson: ‘the Word was God, of Divine nature; not “a god”.’(Expositors Gk Testmnt, p.684) Spiros Zodhiates: ‘In John 1:1, Jesus Christ in His pre-incarnate state is called the Word, presenting as the second person of the Godhead.’ (NT Word Study Dictionary, p 935) W.E.Vine: ‘the λογος (logos), the Word, the personal manifestation, not of a part of the divine nature, but of the whole deity.’ (Complete Expository Dictionary of NT Words, p683) 8. All other gods are false gods. Hence, Jesus Christ in John 1:1 must be either the only true God Jehovah or a false god. Which one? 9. Church Writers writing before 325 AD all agree that John 1:1 is ‘the Word was God’, and that it means that Jesus is fully God and man. This verse was never disputed before the occultist Greber’s NT was published in 1937. Notice 12 Church writers before 325 AD who all quote John 1:1 correctly as ‘the Word was God’. Question: Why do NONE of them quote it as ‘a god’? • These early Church writers knew Greek as their mother tongue and first language, • These men often were quoting from the original autographs. 1) Irenaeus, (120-202 AD) Vol 1, p 328,Vol 1, p 428,Vol 1, p 546 2) Theophilus of Antioch (115-181 AD)Vol 2, p 103, 3) Clement of Alexandria (153-217 AD) Vol 2, p 173, 4) Tertullian (145-220 AD), Vol 3 p 488, p 489, p 602, p 607 5) Origen (185-254 AD), Vol.4 p 262, Origen de Principiis p 291, p 553 Origen against Celsus p 603, p 642, 6) Cyprian (200-258 AD), Vol 5 p 516, p 518 7) Novatian (210-280 AD), Vol 5, p 624,p 624, p 642 8) Hippolytus (170-236 AD), Vol 5, p.288. 9) Thaumaturgus (205 AD), Vol 6,p.69 10) Methodius (260-312 AD), Vol 6,p.381. 11) Alexander (273-326 AD),Vol 6,p.292 12) Tatian’s Diatessaron (150 AD), Vol 10, p 43 Note: Compare these quotes by Ante-Nicene Church fathers which contradict the Watchtower’s invented quotes of Church fathers on p7 of ‘Should you believe in the Trinity?’ 10. TheWatchtower’s Kingdom Interlinear Translation (KIT, p.401) quote of John 1:1, in the left hand column has ‘god was the Word’, which CONTRADICTS the right hand column NWT translation which says ‘the word was a god’. Hence the Word (Christ who became flesh, v.14) is called ‘God’ on the LHS of the page, and ‘a god’ on the RHS of the page. 11. Greek grammar rules out ‘a god’. JWs say that for Jesus to be Jehovah God here, there should be the definite article ‘the’ (Greek ‘ό’) before God (θεος). Because ‘θεος’ does not have the definite article ‘ό’ before it, JWs conclude that ‘the word’ was indefinite, and means ‘a god’. Answer: A.T. Robertson Greek authority says (A Grammar of Greek NT, p.767): ‘Nouns in the Predicate: The article is not essential to speech....The word with the article (“ό”) is then the subject of the sentence, whatever the word order may be. So in John 1:1, “ ό λογος” , the subject is perfectly clear (“the word” = “ό λογος”, and it can only be “the word was God”.’ Key: Hence the article ‘the’ (ό) points out the subject (ό λογος) of the clause, and points out the predicate (θεος ) without the article. If John had written ‘ό θεος ην ό λογος’ as the JWs would want, then John would be teaching false doctrine of Sabellianism (that Christ is all of God, that God and Christ are interchangeable, that the Father was the one who became incarnate, suffered and died). Note: If the article is used with both the subject (ie. λογος ) and the predicate (ie. θεος), they would then be interchangeable as the subject nouns are in I John 3:4 (η αµαρτια εστιν η ανοµια) then both ‘sin is transgression’ and ‘transgression is sin’ are true’. But in I John 4:16, ‘ ’ can only be ‘God is Love’, not ‘Love is God’ (because the article points out the subject). If the Greek language allowed us to say ‘Love is God’ just as readily as ‘God is Love’ in this verse, then God would not be a person, but just an abstract quality. (see Was Christ God?, Spiros Zodhiates, p.98). Conclusion: Hence, the absence of the definite artice ‘?’ in John 1:1 is deliberate in order to identify ‘the Word’ as the subject of the sentence and to make it only to read as ‘the Word was God’. It has nothing to do with Christ being a lesser god as the JWs claim. Hence, contrary to the NWT and The Emphatic Diaglott, the Greek grammatical construction leaves no doubt whatsoever that ‘the Word was God’ is the only possible rendering of the text.
  9. Greek Scholars & The Watchtower: Julius Mantey Julius Mantey was arguably the greatest Greek scholar of the 20th century. He was co-author of A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament, a Greek grammar that was in use for half a century to teach Greek in prominent schools. Along with other Greek grammar book authors A. T. Robertson and Daniel Wallace, Mantey disagreed with the Watchtower’s (Jehovah’s Witnesses’) book, the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures (NWT). For several years, Mantey was quoted in a footnote to the NWT, with the Watchtower trying to use Mantey’s grammar book to support their view of the bible. Mantey took offense, and wrote the letter below. The significance of this letter is that it is from a respected author of a Greek grammar. We live in a free country, and Wathtower supporters have, and likely will continue, to disagree with any point they desire. I am not in a position to defend Mantey; a scholar of his caliber does not need a defense from me. I am not a language scholar, do not pretend to be one, nor will I hide my ignorance of the languages. Concerning grammar and translation, too many arguments are made from those who should have remained silent, and I do not wish to contribute to the problem by adding my words to the conversation. But I know enough to use the tools and quote the scholars. Of the three Greek grammars I mentioned, all specifically disagree with the NWT. The Watchtower can protest all they want, but their disagreement is with the unified opinion of all the language scholars. If the Watchtower ever publishes a Greek text that is used in accredited schools to teach Greek, or can find one that is in agreement with them, they will be taken seriously. Until then, they will not. Below is a top-tier scholar’s view of the Watchtower and their book. Anyone can write a book claiming to know what they are talking about, but this does not make them true. The only objective reference we have for language is the recognized grammars. If the Watchtower claims all of the grammars are wrong, they have made a self-refuting statement. Julius R. Mantey 414 Palmette Road New Port Richey, FL 33552 July 11, 1974 Watchtower Bible & Tract Society 117 Adams St. Brooklyn New York 11201 Dear Sirs: I have a copy of your letter addressed to Caris in Santa Ana, California, and I am writing to express my disagreement with statements made in that letter, as well as in quotations you have made from the Dana-Mantey Greek Grammar. (1) Your statement: “their work allows for the rendering found in the Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek Scriptures at John 1:1.” There is no statement in our grammar that was ever meant to imply at “a god” was a permissible translation in John 1:1. A. We had no “rule” to argue in support of the trinity. B. Neither did we state that we did have such intention. We were simply delineating the facts inherent in Biblical language. C. Your quotation from p.148 (3) was in a paragraph under the heading: “With the Subject in a Copulative sentence.” Two examples occur there to illustrate that “the article points out the subject in these examples.” But we made no statement in the paragraph about the predicate except that , “as it stands the other persons of the trinity may be implied in theos.” And isn’t that the opposite of what your translation “a god” infers? You quoted me out of context. On pages 139 and 140 (VI) in our grammar we stated: “without the article theos signifies divine essence . . . theos en ho logos emphasizes Christ’s participation in the essence of the divine nature.” Our intepretation is in agreement with that in NEB and the TEV: “What God was, the Word was”; and with that of Barclay: “The nature of the Word was the same as the nature of God”, which you quoted in your letter to Caris. (2) Since Colwell’s and Harner’s articles in JBL, especially that of Harner, it is neither scholarly nor reasonable to translate John 1:1 “The Word was a god”. Word-order has made obsolete and incorrect such a rendering. (3) Your quotation of Colwell’s rule is inadequate because it quotes only a part of the his findings. You did not quote this strong assertion: “A predicate nominative which precedes the verb cannot be translated as an indefinite or a ‘qualitative’ noun solely because of the absence of the article.” (4) Prof Harner, vol. 92:1 (1973) in JBL, has gone beyond Colwell’s research and has discovered that anarthrous predicate nouns preceding the verb function primarily to express the nature or character of the subject. He found this true in 53 passages in the Gospel of John and 8 in the Gospel of Mark. Both scholars wrote that when indefiniteness was intended the gospel writers regularly placed the predicate noun after the verb, and both Colwell and Harner have stated that theos in John 1:1 is not indefinite and should not be translated “a god”. Watchtower writers appear to be the only ones advocating such a translation now. The evidence appears to be 99% against them. (5) your statement in your letter that the sacred text itself should guide one and “not just someone’s rule book”. We agree with you. But our study proves that Jehovah’s Witnesses do the opposite of that whenever the “sacred text” differs with their heretical beliefs. For example the translation of kolasis as cutting off when punishment is the only meaning cited in the lexicons for it. The mistrnalstion of ego eimi as “I have been” in John 8:58. The addition of “for all time” in Heb. 9:27 when nothing in the Greek New Testament supports it. The attempt to belittle Christ by mistranslating arche tes ktiseos “beginning of the creation” when he is magnified as “the creator of all things” (John 1:2 and as “equal with God” (Phil. 2:6) before he humbled himself and lived in a human body here on earth. Your quotation of “The father is greater than I am” (John 14:28) to prove that Jesus was not equal to God overlooks the fact stated in Phil. 2:6-8. When Jesus said that, he was still in his voluntary state of humiliation. That state ended when he ascended to heaven. Why the attempt to deliberately deceive people by mispunctuation by placing a comma after “today” in Luke 23:43 when in the Greek, Latin, German and all English translations except yours, even in the Greek in your KIT, the comma occurs after lego (I say) — “Today you will be with me in Paradise.” 2 Cor. 5:8, “to be out of the body and at home with the Lord.” These passages teach that the redeemed go immediately to heaven after death, which does not agree with your teachings that death ends all life until the resurrection. Cf. Ps. 23:6 and Heb. 1:10. The aforementioned are only a few examples of Watchtower mistranslations and perversions of God’s Word. In view of the preceding facts, especially because you have been quoting me out of context, I herewith request you not to quote from the Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament again, which you have been doing for 24 years. Also that you not quote it or me in any of your publications from this time on. Also that you publicly and immediately apologize in the Watchtower magazine, since my words had no relevance in the absence of the article before theos in John 1:1. And please write to Caris and state that you misused and misquoted my “rule”. On the page before the Preface in the grammar are these words: “All rights reserved — no part of this book may be reproduced in any form without permission in writing from the publisher.” If you have such permission, please send me a photo-copy of it. If you do not heed these requests you will suffer the consequences. Respectfully yours, Julius R. Mantey
  10. HOLY SPIRIT: Is He a PERSON or an ACTIVE FORCE? II Cor3:17 Watchtower Teaching: The WT claims that the HS is neither a person nor God, but an impersonal ‘active force’ to achieve God’s will, like electricity or radio waves. Bible Teaching: The Holy Spirit is fully God and has personality as He can be blasphemed. The Holy Spirit has the three attributes of personality, those being: mind, emotions and will. An ‘active force’ does not have personal attributes. The WT’s claim of the Holy Spirit being an active force is disproven if the Bible teaches that the Holy Spirit has mind,emotions & will. 1. The Holy Spirit has a mind. (1) ‘He that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit’. (Romans 8:27). The word ‘mind’ means ‘way of thinking’, something which is only true of a person. (2) ‘The things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God.’ (I Corinthians 2:11). QUESTION: How can the Holy Spirit know the things of God if the Spirit does not have a mind? A force does not know things. To know requires a mind. (3) The Spirit searcheth all things’ (I Corinthians 2:10). The Greek word for ‘search’ means to thoroughly investigate a matter, something only a mind can do. 2) The Holy Spirit has emotions (4) The Holy Spirit loves: ‘I beseech you..through the love of the Spirit’.(Rom 15:30 NWT). (5) ‘Grieve not the Holy Spirit of God’. (Ephesians 4:30) The Holy Spirit is grieved (made sad) when believers sin. Grief is an emotion that one feels. A force can’t be grieved. 3) The Holy Spirit has a will. He performs personal acts. (6) The Holy Spirit distributes spiritual gifts ‘to every man severally as he will.’(I Cor.12:11) The phrase ‘he wills’ in Greek means ‘a decision of the will after previous deliberation’. The Holy Spirit chooses which gifts each believer receives. A force has no such will, nor ability to make decisions. (7) The Holy Spirit commands: ‘The Spirit bade me go with them’ (Acts 11:12) (8) The Holy Spirit forbids:‘forbidden of the Holy Ghost to preach the word in Asia’.Acts 16:6 (9) The Holy Spirit speaks: ‘The Spirit said to Philip, Go near.’ (Acts 8:29) ‘The Holy Ghost said, separate me Barnabus and Saul’. (Acts 13:2) ‘The Spirit speaketh expressly’. (I Timothy 4:1). QUESTION: How do you explain the WT view of the Holy Spirit being an impersonal force, with the Bible’s teaching that the Holy Spirit has a mind that can know, emotions that can feel love and grief, and a will to make decisions? (10) The Holy Spirit testifies: ‘He shall testify of me’. (John 15:26). The same Greek word for testify (or bear witness) used here, is also used of: a) The disciples testifying about Christ in John 15:27. b) John the Baptist bearing witness to the truth in John 5:33. c) God the Father bore witness to Cornelius’ (and Gentiles’) conversion by giving them the Holy Spirit. (Acts 15:8) Just as the disciples, John and God the Father (who are all persons) testified or bore witness, so the Holy Spirit bears witness about Christ. A force cannot bear witness, only a person can. (The Holy Spirit bears witness in heaven and on earth - I John 5:7,8) (11) The Holy Spirit intercedes or prays for believers.‘The Spirit itself makes intercession for us with groanings’. (Romans 8:26). Just as Jesus Christ (a person) intercedes for believers (Romans 8:34; Hebrews 7:25), so the Holy Spirit (as a person) intercedes (same Greek word) for believers. A force cannot pray for another; only a person can pray. (12) The Holy Spirit teaches believers. (‘he shall teach you all things’. John 14:26) (13) The Holy Spirit hears. ‘Whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak.’ (John 16:13) (14) The Holy Spirit shows us things. ‘he....shall show it unto you’. (John 16:15) (15) The Holy Spirit restrains sin. ‘My Spirit shall not always strive with man’(Genesis 6:3) (16) The Holy Spirit can be blasphemed.‘he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost’.Mk3:29 People cannot be blasphemed. We can only be slandered. Only God can be blasphemed. By Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit being blasphemed means we’ve proved the Trinity. (a) God the Father can be blasphemed. (Revelation 13:6; 16:9) (b) God the Son can be blasphemed. (Luke 22:65) ‘And many other things blasphemously they spake against him’. (c) God the Holy Spirit can be blasphemed. (Matthew 12:31) ‘Blasphemy against the Holy Spirit shall not be forgiven unto men.’ (17) The Holy Spirit can be lied to (Acts 5:3). Ananias and Sapphira lied to the Holy Spirit. QUESTION: Have you ever lied to electricity and asked electricity to forgive you? (18) The Holy Spirit cries in our hearts, Abba, Father. (Galatians 4:6) (19) The Holy Spirit approves some decisions: ‘It seemed good to the Holy Ghost and to us’. (Acts 15:28) (20) The Holy Spirit invites people to be saved:‘The Spirit & the bride say Come’Rev 22:17 (21) The Holy Spirit fills us (Ephesians 5:18) just as God may fill us (Ephesians 3:19). (22) The Holy Spirit uses personal pronouns to describe Himself: John 15:26; 16:13;(he): ‘The Holy Spirit said, Separate me Barnabus. . .’ (Acts 13:2). The Holy Spirit considers Himself a person, not a personification. Watchtower Objection: The main reason the JWs say that the Holy Spirit is an ‘active force’ is because the Greek word for ‘spirit’ (pneuma) is neuter. Answer: This is faulty reasoning, because 1)the gender of a word relates to the grammatical form of the word, not to its sex or physical gender. Because a word is grammatically neuter does not mean that the object is an ‘it’ or of neuter sex. (Source: Elements of NT Greek, J W Wenham, 1979, p.8). For example, in Greek, ‘children’ is a neuter word, ‘desert’ is a feminine word, etc.and 2) In John 15:26 and 16:13, the neuter noun ‘pneuma’ is referred to by the masculine pronoun ‘ekeinos’ (1565=that one, masculine) recognising the Holy Spirit’s masculine personality. ‘He (ekeinos) shall testify of me’ (15:26); ‘when he (ekeinos), the Spirit of truth shall come’ (16:13). Note: ‘ekeine’ is feminine ‘that one’, and ‘ekeino’ is neuter). (23) The Holy Spirit comforts (Gk: parakletos) believers. John 14:16, 26; 15:26; 16:7. This same Greek word ‘parakletos’ (3875) is used of Christ who has personality in John 14:16 and I John 2:1. ‘Another Comforter’ (Gk: allos parakletos, John 14:16) means ‘another of the same kind’ as Christ, in contrast to ‘heteros’ (2087) meaning ‘another of a different kind’. As Christ has Deity and Personality, so does the Holy Spirit. To comfort requires empathy, understanding, love, compassion and concern for another’s well-being, all being attributes of personality. Conclusion: Hence,the Holy Spirit is a person because 1) He has mind, emotions,& will. 2) Personal pronouns are used of Him. 3) He performs personal acts.4) He associates with the Father and Son in the Baptism formula, Apostolic benediction and as Church Administrator (I Cor. 12:4-6). 5) He can be personally mistreated (tempted, lied to, grieved, resisted, insulted and blasphemed). The New Testament clearly shows the Holy Spirit to have a personality and to be God. (‘Jehovah is the Spirit’ II Cor. 3:17 NWT).

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