Where does the NT tell us to name the name of Jehovah?

[Shiwiii]

 

I understand your position. However there are scriptures that you cannot ignore.

"If Jesus is 100% God, then why is the Bible always so careful to show that Jesus fully represents God to us, but that he is never called "God" anywhere, with only some possible exceptions in the book of John. "

Do you mean like John 7:37&38? (Isaiah 55:1-3), John 10:11&12 (Psalms 23:1, Psalms 95:7), John 12:41 (Isaiah 6:1), John 13:18 (Isaiah 43:10), John 14:15 (Exodus 20:6). The context of each of these is in harmony with the OT scripture. The account at John 12:41 is undeniable that it is equating Jehovah of the OT with Jesus of the NT.

"Still, even in John there is a kind of hesitation to speak of Jesus as "fully" God: "no man has seen God" but "the only-begotten god... has explained him." To me, it's as if it's saying that -- for all intents and purposes as far as humans can perceive -- the Word is so close to a full representation of God that we can now know God fully through the manifestation of the Son of God, who is not God, but for our purposes, might as well be because he has done such a perfect job representing him."

So there is some degree within you to accept that Jesus is God. Good.

"I, naturally, don't think that we should be blamed for our interpretation either."

I am not blaming,  but rather explaining. There are many who hold your position and many who hold mine, but it IS our job to express our position according to the Bible.

"Therefore, we don't see the conflict in NT writers choosing verses that were originally about YHWH (Jehovah) and using them to tell us something about the Lord Jesus Christ. "

The conflict comes in when the context and subject is changed, and that is my whole point. If the NT is equating something that God of the OT has done or is to Jesus, then the only logical reason is to show us that Jesus is the God of the OT. This is by reason of Isaiah 46:9, "there is no one like me"