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Which nations disappear in Armageddon?


Israeli Bar Avaddhon

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@Israeli Bar Avaddhon, As you already know, I disagree with some of your conclusions, but I love the fact that you want to have lively, vibrant conversations about Biblical matters. And, to be fair, I have not yet taken the time to explain why I disagree with your conclusions, so I'm glad you are still around. Still, the kind of discussions you are fostering are of the type that true Bible Students have always enjoyed. It's not for everyone, of course. As you say, some like "tranquility." Hope some of these ideas become "settled" for you.

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Chapters 19 and 20 of Revelation will unveil some significant details about the war of Armageddon and what will happen next. These details will include two major changes to the current understandi

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6 minutes ago, John Houston said:

says that the rest, who could that mean?

Dear John Houston,
I can hardly understand what you have written.
Unfortunately my English is not good.
I want to isolate a sentence that I may have understood.
Perhaps your objection is: "If the dead are resurrected after the destruction of Satan, what will they be judged? What proof will they have?".
it's correct?

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Verse 11, John wrote, 'And I saw' he did after the fact, this is another totally different vision. Using your reasoning, though, what happens to the heaven and the earth? In order? Because now should I believe my actions now in my life follow me after I die? What actions of the dead are they being judged by, if indeed scripture teaches us that the dead have no works or actions in the Grave? As Matthew writes, 'let the reader use discernment'. If we are going to do deep personal study, we have to have astute practical discernment, and not do it alone. Jesus told us to gather together, not alone, remember his words at Matthew 18:19,20?

Those trumpets in Revelation, the last one, or final one, did come as Paul stated. During which the anointed were resurrected, and all others would be changed in a twinkling of an eye to immortal life in heaven.

i have been at this for some 50yrs., there have been many revisions on many subjects, and studying has helped. Those visions chapters 15:1--16:21, is what is considered the  10th vision of this book. And 18:1---19:10 is the 12th vision, 19:11-21, is another vision. There is no controversy that goes with research of God's word and I agree with in is the final authority.

 

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20 minutes ago, John Houston said:

Now how if in you scenario, after Satan is destroyed, dead ones are raised, not being educated from the scrolls, not worshipping shoulder to shoulder, using the pure language of obedience to Jehovah's sovereignty?

John, Excellent point!

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8 minutes ago, Israeli Bar Avaddhon said:

have you gone from criticizing my posts to get to give me advice on how to "put me better" in front of others?

Yes.

8 minutes ago, Israeli Bar Avaddhon said:

In the next article I will write I will only ask a series of questions. Can I count on your Scriptural answers?

Probably not. I go where I go. So I may or may not. The trick is to not let yourself be cross-examined.

Even if I thought I could knock it out of the park, I would refrain. The GB consistently says 'do not tell them what you think - all you can do thereby is make them a disciple of yourself. Direct them to what the Bible teaches.' They say this to publishers with regard to addressing the public. They say it to elders with regard to addressing the publishers. I don't want to set myself up as an instructor or make disciples for myself. If I succeeded, I assure you the novelty would soon wear off.

18 minutes ago, Israeli Bar Avaddhon said:

Thanks again, TrueTomHarley, and so I hope I can start a frank and respectful conversation only with the Word of God.

You are welcome. It is well intended. You probably will not succeed in doing the latter. I respect the GB's counsel to not set up online study groups, because of their tendency to promote the sects that Paul deplores in the first chapter of 1 Corinthians. Even on this forum - you may have noticed, though I admit it in the eye of the beholder - I do not get myself mixed up with that sort of thing. There are flavors of participation; I try not to go there. 

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Thank you.
Perhaps I understood your objection (at least part of your objection).
The writing says that "thrones were placed to judge the dead" - Revelation 20: 4
In the meantime, no one has said that "we are left to the betrayal" for a thousand years because these thrones are put exclusively to judge the dead.

Obviously the elect are elected a long time before (to the sound of the 7° trumpet, in fact). They will be "kings and priests" and they will lead the people of God from Armageddon onwards.
As you can see, there is no contradiction in this.
What will the dead be judged on?
This question, unfortunately, starts with an incorrect intention.
Does death really erase sins?
The point is exactly this.
Will the dead be judged by what they "do" (future) or what they will do when they were alive?
This topic was discussed here https://www.theworldnewsmedia.org/topic/47137-does-death-really-erase-sins/

If we take the arguments one by one, you will see that there is no contradiction.
Obviously I do not expect you to give the reason.
I expect you to compare the Scriptures without preconceptions
Thank you

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12 minutes ago, Israeli Bar Avaddhon said:

Does death really erase sins?
The point is exactly this.
Will the dead be judged by what they "do" (future) or what they will do when they were alive?

God's word says "the one who has died has been acquitted from his sin." (Romans 6:7)

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2 minutes ago, DeeDee said:

God's word says "the one who has died has been acquitted from his sin." (Romans 6:7)

Just now, DeeDee said:

 

Dear DeeDee, I know this writing and I also know its context.
Do you know the context well?
Since this topic has already been discussed, perhaps you should take the time to read what has been written, is not it?
Try reading what has been written.
Rate the scriptures and then give me your objection

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La morte cancella davvero i peccati?
 
Una conseguenza del fatto che la risurrezione avviene alla fine del millennio sta chiedendo la questione di quali basi saranno giudicati risorto .
Finora c'è stato insegnato che il risorto sarebbe giudicato in base a quello che avrebbero fatto dopo la loro resurrezione , che è, per un lungo periodo nel regno di Cristo.
L'apostolo Paolo ha detto una volta ... "Io ho in Dio la speranza ... che ci sarà una risurrezione sia dei giusti che degli ingiusti" - Atti 24:15
Perché Paolo nutriva la speranza che ci fosse una resurrezione per gli ingiusti che, se fossero stati giudicati solo dalle loro azioni passate, avrebbe poi ucciso?
Probabilmente questi "rotoli" conterrà molti dettagli della vita delle persone e magari aggiungerà le istruzioni dettagliate su come procedere, valutare e mitigare le cause, ed è ragionevole credere che ci potrebbe essere anche un momento di prova per almeno alcuni dei loro.
Noi non abbiamo particolari su di esso, ma Geova è il giudice giusto e sicuramente farà in modo che tutte le persone degne hanno la possibilità di vivere ed essere felici - Confronta Matteo 10:15 e Luca 10:13, 14
Tuttavia, il libro biblico di Rivelazione insegna che la risurrezione avverrà alla fine del millennio e non durante, e quindi dobbiamo accettare le Scritture.
La scrittura è detto che il resto dei morti non tornò in vita finché i mille anni non furono finiti - Rivelazione 20: 5
" Fino a quando" significa "fino al momento in cui" e non "durante" e ciò sembrerebbe suggerire che questi mille anni, eletti avrebbe regnato sui sopravvissuti di Armageddon e le loro famiglie, ma non su qualsiasi risorto.
Lo stesso termine, "lungo" usata in Matteo 1:25, abbiamo sempre usato per dimostrare, ai sostenitori della verginità di Maria, Giuseppe non ha avuto rapporti sessuali con la moglie fino alla nascita del bambino (e questo indica che dopo questa nascita di Maria e Joseph consumato il matrimonio come qualsiasi altra coppia di sposi).
Questo dovrebbe essere sufficiente a dimostrare che la resurrezione avverrà dopo la fine del millennio , un concetto che sembra essere ripetuto nei versetti 12 e 13.
Se questo è corretto, come dovremmo comprendere le parole di Paolo descritti in Romani 6: 7 che "colui che è morto è stato assolto dai suoi peccati"?
Se la morte è stato assolto dal peccato ... perché allora è stato giudicato nel Giorno del Giudizio, e la risurrezione, secondo le cose scritte nei rotoli?
Questa apparente contraddizione ha portato a pensare che il giorno del giudizio sarebbe avvenuto in realtà in tutto il regno millenario di Cristo e verrà giudicato su quello che la gente avrebbe fatto in questo periodo .
La durata del regno di Cristo sarebbe in armonia con il concetto di "giorno" espresso nelle Scritture - II Pietro 3: 8
 
 
 
La morte cancella veramente peccato?
Tuttavia, analizzando il contesto di Romani capitolo 6 non è chiaro a tutti che il giudizio non si verifica in base a quanto è stato fatto quando era vivo.
Paolo, infatti, parlando della Unto dice che "è morto con riferimento al peccato" e che sono stati battezzati nella morte di Cristo.
Dice anche che sono stati "sepolti con lui" di battesimo e che il battesimo costituivano, in effetti, una "novità di vita."
E 'chiaro che Paolo sta usando un linguaggio figurativo perché nessun cristiano, unto o no, è sepolto con Cristo .
In altre parole, sembra che Paolo sta dicendo che solo non peccare più, che sta dimostrando di essere morto sulla vita precedente peccaminosa e dimostrando fede nel sacrificio di riscatto di Cristo , è libero dal giudizio.
Il versetto 8 dice anche "siamo morti con Cristo" e "crediamo che anche vivremo con lui," ma ovviamente Paolo non era veramente morto, o con Cristo o per chiunque altro.
Lui e molti altri erano morti rispetto alla vita di prima e ora vissuto una "vita nuova".
Avendo deciso di essere morto dalla vita precedente lui e gli altri erano stati "liberati dal loro peccato."
Questo è in armonia con le parole di Gesù quando ha detto che coloro che vorrebbero ascoltare la sua parola e esercitato fede in lui non sarebbe andato a processo - Giovanni 5:24
Inoltre, se il peccato la morte è stata annullata, come dovremmo comprendere le parole di Rivelazione 06:10?
In questa scrittura si parla delle anime dei giusti che chiedono di essere rivendicato, ma si presume che gli autori di questi cristiani sono morti da tempo.
Se la morte il peccato degli autori si è spenta ... su quali basi si può gridare vendetta? E chi dovrebbe vendicarsi questa vendetta se non ci sono più peccatori? Anche altri scritti aiutano a far luce su questo aspetto.
Facendo riferimento a quelle città che non avrebbe sentito il messaggio, Gesù disse che il giorno del giudizio sarebbe più sopportabile per Sodoma e Gomorra che per loro - Matteo 10:14, 15; Matteo 11: 20-24
Perché sarebbe più "tollerabile" per Sodoma e Gomorra o Tiro e Sidone, anche se il peccato la morte sarebbe stato annullato e la risurrezione sarebbe tutto di nuovo da zero?
Nello stesso principio si può ragionare su ciò che viene detto in Apocalisse 14:13.
La scrittura si riferisce a cristiani e dice: "Beati i morti ... perché le cose che hanno fatto andare a destra con loro."
Se le cose buone vengono conservate in memoria di Geova anche dopo la morte, non è ragionevole credere che questo accade per il resto?
Matteo 12:36 dice: "Io vi dico che di ogni parola inutile che gli uomini hanno detto renderanno conto nel giorno del giudizio."
Se leggiamo solo ciò che è scritto senza cercare interpretazioni articolate, si capisce che "hanno detto" è il passato, naturalmente, riferendosi a quanto è stato detto in questa vita e non ciò che potrebbe significare per il futuro (in effetti, Gesù ha è condannando i farisei che hanno appena affermato che lui guidare i demoni per Beelzebub).
Di questo si sono resi conto nel giorno del giudizio.
In Matteo 23: 33-36 Gesù condanna la nazione di Israele, in particolare gli scribi ei farisei per la loro ipocrisia e la violenza e dice "che è in voi tutto il sangue giusto sparso sulla terra, dal sangue del giusto Abele fino al sangue di Zaccaria figlio di Barachia, che si assassinaste tra il santuario e l'altare. "
Come si può chiedere il sangue di Abele e di tutti coloro che sono morti in seguito, se i loro assassini erano morti e poi diventare senza peccato?
In 2 Timoteo 4:14 l'apostolo Paolo disse: "Alessandro il ramaio, mi ha portato molto male -. Geova gli renderà secondo le sue opere"
Geova avrebbe fatto secondo le sue opere quando?
Prima della sua morte, cioè, nel primo secolo?
Forse Geova intervenne per punire tutti i persecutori dei cristiani nel primo secolo?
Non è forse chiaro che l'apostolo Paolo dice che Geova avrebbe ricordato le opere di questo Alessandro sul Giorno del Giudizio?
Da questi scritti è chiaro che la morte non cancella automaticamente il peccato, ma farà solo del giudizio di Geova - Confronta Rivelazione 18: 5
Come Romani 6:23 dice che il salario che il peccato paga è la morte, e così, anche se la morte ripagare il debito, hanno bisogno di rimanere nella morte .
Ciò significa che la loro eventuale resurrezione, tuttavia, dovrebbe rispondere per i loro peccati, perché, in effetti, non sono rimasti in quelle condizioni.
In realtà la parola "salario" e "paga" si inseriscono perfettamente in questo concetto.
Se a causa dei miei debiti ho dovuto vendere la mia proprietà (in modo da ripagare i miei debiti) non può riprendere quello che ho venduto.
Se i riprendere i soldi che ho venduto la proprietà solo per sradicare quel debito , sarei tornato in debito.
L'unico modo per recuperare le proprietà in modo lecito è che qualcuno paga invece di darmi indietro le proprietà .
In realtà la scrittura di Romani 6:23 si conclude con le parole ... "ma il dono che dà Dio è la vita eterna in Cristo Gesù, nostro Signore."
Cristo ha pagato il debito per noi, che ci permette di non rimanere la morte o restituire la vita che avevamo perso legalmente - Confronta Matteo 18: 23-27
Tuttavia, questo sembra suggerire che il Giorno del Giudizio non significherà automaticamente la distruzione dei peccatori, ed è probabilmente un caso che Gesù ha usato la parola "orso" - Matteo 10:15
Armonizzando le parole di Paolo, che nutriva la speranza che ci sarebbe stata una risurrezione sia dei giusti che degli ingiusti, si può supporre che si tratterà di un periodo che governa, in casi estremi porterà alla morte definitiva, mentre tutti gli altri saranno consistere in un periodo di prova, più o meno lungo e più o meno duro, che avrà lo scopo di raggiungere la salvezza - Confronta Matteo 05:25, 26
Ci sono molte indicazioni su di esso e poi non vanno al di là di ciò che è scritto, ma in realtà il libro dell'Apocalisse chiarisce che la risurrezione avverrà alla fine del millennio (non durante), e che le persone saranno giudicati su quello che si sono trovati scritto.
Come si pesano i singoli peccati di ogni individuo non è noto, ma siamo grati che Cristo Gesù per giudicare e non un semplice uomo!
Egli è l'immagine di Dio, possiamo essere sicuri che il suo giudizio sarà giusto e retto - Deuteronomio 32: 4; Giovanni 5:21, 22; 08:15, 16

Una cosa è chiara come bene.
È la morte per cancellare il peccato o è il sacrificio di Cristo?

Altre informazioni è venuto fuori nella conversazione mostrato qui

https://www.theworldnewsmedia.org/topic/47137-does-death-really-erase-sins/

Per favore non rispondere dopo 5 minuti perché sarà chiaro che non avete letto le Scritture.

 

 
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Death really erases the sins?
 
One consequence of the fact that the resurrection takes place at the end of the millennium is asking the question of what basis will be judged resurrected .
So far we have been taught that the resurrected would be judged based on what they would do after their resurrection , that is, over a long period in the kingdom of Christ.
The apostle Paul once said ... "I have hope toward God ... that there will be a resurrection of both the righteous and the unrighteous" - Acts 24:15
Because Paul harbored the hope that there was a resurrection for the unjust who, if they were only judged by their past actions, would then killed?
Probably these "rolls" will contain many details of the life of people and perhaps will add detailed instructions on how to proceed, evaluating and mitigating the causes, and it is reasonable to believe that there might also be a probationary time for at least some of them.
We have no particular about it, but Jehovah is the Righteous Judge and certainly will make sure that all those worthy have a chance to live and be happy - Compare Matthew 10:15 and Luke 10:13, 14
However, the Bible book of Revelation teaches that the resurrection will occur at the end of the millennium and not during, and so we must acquiesce to the Scriptures.
The writing is said that the rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were not finished - Revelation 20: 5
" As long as" means "up to the moment when" and not "during" and this would appear to suggest that these thousand years, elected would reign on the survivors of Armageddon and their families but not on any resurrected.
The same term, "long" used in Matthew 1:25, we always used to demonstrate, to supporters of virginity of Mary, Joseph had no intercourse with his wife until the birth of the child (and this indicates that after this birth Mary and Joseph consummated marriage as any other married couple).
This should be enough to prove that the resurrection will occur after the end of the millennium , a concept that seems to be repeated in verses 12 and 13.
If this is correct, how should we understand the words of Paul described in Romans 6: 7 that "he who has died has been acquitted from their sins"?
If the death has been absolved from sin ... why then it was judged on the Day of Judgment, or the resurrection, according to the things written in the scrolls?
This apparent contradiction has led to think that the Day of Judgment would take place in reality throughout the millennial reign of Christ and will be judged on what people would have done during this period .
The duration of the kingdom of Christ would be in harmony with the concept of "day" expressed in the Scriptures - II Peter 3: 8
 
Death erases really sin?
However, analyzing the context of Romans chapter 6 it is not clear at all that the Judgment does not occur on the basis of what has been done when he was alive.
Paul, in fact, speaking of the anointed says he "died with reference to sin" and who were baptized into Christ's death.
He also says that they were "buried with him" by baptism and that baptism constituted, in effect, a "newness of life."
It 'clear that Paul is using figurative language because no Christian, anointed or not, is buried with Christ .
In other words it seems that Paul is saying that only sin no more, that is proving to be dead about life previous sinful and demonstrating faith in the ransom sacrifice of Christ , it is free from judgment.
Verse 8 also says "we have died with Christ" and "we believe that we shall also live with him" but of course Paul was not really dead, or with Christ or to anyone else.
He and several others had died compared to their previous life and now lived a "newness of life".
Having decided to be dead from the previous life he and the others had been "delivered from their sin."
This is in harmony with the words of Jesus when he said that those who would listen to his word and exercised faith in Him would not go to trial - John 5:24
Also, if the death sin was canceled, how should we understand the words of Revelation 6:10?
In this scripture it speaks of the souls of the just who apply to be vindicated, but it is assumed that the perpetrators of these Christians have died long ago.
If the death the sin of the perpetrators has been extinguished ... on what basis can they cry out revenge? And who should retaliate this revenge if there are no more sinners? Even other writings help to shed light on this aspect.
Referring to those cities who would not have heard the message, Jesus said that on the Day of Judgment would be more bearable for Sodom and Gomorrah than for them - Matthew 10:14, 15; Matthew 11: 20-24
Why it would be more "tolerable" for Sodom and Gomorrah O Tire and Sidon, though the death sin would be canceled and the resurrection would all again from scratch?
In the same principle we can reason about what is said in Revelation 14:13.
The writing refers to Christians and says, "Happy are the dead ... because the things they did go right with them."
If good things are retained in Jehovah's memory even after death, it is not reasonable to believe that this happens for the rest?
Matthew 12:36 says, "I tell you that every word unprofitable that men have said give account on the Day of Judgment."
If we read only what is written without trying articulated interpretations, you understand that "have said" is the past, of course, referring to what has been said in this life and not what they could mean in the future (in fact, Jesus He is condemning the Pharisees who have just asserted that he drive out demons by Beelzebub).
Of this they realized the Day of Judgment.
In Matthew 23: 33-36 Jesus condemns the nation of Israel, especially the scribes and Pharisees for their hypocrisy and violence and says "that is on you all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah son of Barachiah, whom you assassinaste between the sanctuary and the altar. "
How could anyone ask for the blood of Abel and of all those who died later if their murderers were dead and then become sinless?
In 2 Timothy 4:14 the apostle Paul said, "Alexander the coppersmith has brought me much evil - Jehovah will repay him according to his works."
Jehovah would have made according to his works when?
Before his death, that is, in the first century?
Perhaps Jehovah intervened to punish all the persecutors of Christians in the first century?
Is it not clear that the apostle Paul is saying that Jehovah would remember the works of this Alessandro on Judgment Day?
From these writings it is clear that death does not automatically delete the sin but I will only do the Jehovah's Judgment - Compare Revelation 18: 5
As Romans 6:23 says the wages sin pays is death, and so, even if the death repay the debt, they need to remain in death .
This means that their eventual resurrection, however, should answer for their sins because, indeed, have not remained in that condition.
In fact the word "salary" and "pays" fit perfectly into this concept.
Death really erases the sins?
 
One consequence of the fact that the resurrection takes place at the end of the millennium is asking the question of what basis will be judged resurrected .
So far we have been taught that the resurrected would be judged based on what they would do after their resurrection , that is, over a long period in the kingdom of Christ.
The apostle Paul once said ... "I have hope toward God ... that there will be a resurrection of both the righteous and the unrighteous" - Acts 24:15
Because Paul harbored the hope that there was a resurrection for the unjust who, if they were only judged by their past actions, would then killed?
Probably these "rolls" will contain many details of the life of people and perhaps will add detailed instructions on how to proceed, evaluating and mitigating the causes, and it is reasonable to believe that there might also be a probationary time for at least some of them.
We have no particular about it, but Jehovah is the Righteous Judge and certainly will make sure that all those worthy have a chance to live and be happy - Compare Matthew 10:15 and Luke 10:13, 14
However, the Bible book of Revelation teaches that the resurrection will occur at the end of the millennium and not during, and so we must acquiesce to the Scriptures.
The writing is said that the rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were not finished - Revelation 20: 5
" As long as" means "up to the moment when" and not "during" and this would appear to suggest that these thousand years, elected would reign on the survivors of Armageddon and their families but not on any resurrected.
The same term, "long" used in Matthew 1:25, we always used to demonstrate, to supporters of virginity of Mary, Joseph had no intercourse with his wife until the birth of the child (and this indicates that after this birth Mary and Joseph consummated marriage as any other married couple).
This should be enough to prove that the resurrection will occur after the end of the millennium , a concept that seems to be repeated in verses 12 and 13.
If this is correct, how should we understand the words of Paul described in Romans 6: 7 that "he who has died has been acquitted from their sins"?
If the death has been absolved from sin ... why then it was judged on the Day of Judgment, or the resurrection, according to the things written in the scrolls?
This apparent contradiction has led to think that the Day of Judgment would take place in reality throughout the millennial reign of Christ and will be judged on what people would have done during this period .
The duration of the kingdom of Christ would be in harmony with the concept of "day" expressed in the Scriptures - II Peter 3: 8
dash-fustone-in-polvere-1170-gr.jpg
Death erases really sin?
However, analyzing the context of Romans chapter 6 it is not clear at all that the Judgment does not occur on the basis of what has been done when he was alive.
Paul, in fact, speaking of the anointed says he "died with reference to sin" and who were baptized into Christ's death.
He also says that they were "buried with him" by baptism and that baptism constituted, in effect, a "newness of life."
It 'clear that Paul is using figurative language because no Christian, anointed or not, is buried with Christ .
In other words it seems that Paul is saying that only sin no more, that is proving to be dead about life previous sinful and demonstrating faith in the ransom sacrifice of Christ , it is free from judgment.
Verse 8 also says "we have died with Christ" and "we believe that we shall also live with him" but of course Paul was not really dead, or with Christ or to anyone else.
He and several others had died compared to their previous life and now lived a "newness of life".
Having decided to be dead from the previous life he and the others had been "delivered from their sin."
This is in harmony with the words of Jesus when he said that those who would listen to his word and exercised faith in Him would not go to trial - John 5:24
Also, if the death sin was canceled, how should we understand the words of Revelation 6:10?
In this scripture it speaks of the souls of the just who apply to be vindicated, but it is assumed that the perpetrators of these Christians have died long ago.
If the death the sin of the perpetrators has been extinguished ... on what basis can they cry out revenge? And who should retaliate this revenge if there are no more sinners? Even other writings help to shed light on this aspect.
Referring to those cities who would not have heard the message, Jesus said that on the Day of Judgment would be more bearable for Sodom and Gomorrah than for them - Matthew 10:14, 15; Matthew 11: 20-24
Why it would be more "tolerable" for Sodom and Gomorrah O Tire and Sidon, though the death sin would be canceled and the resurrection would all again from scratch?
In the same principle we can reason about what is said in Revelation 14:13.
The writing refers to Christians and says, "Happy are the dead ... because the things they did go right with them."
If good things are retained in Jehovah's memory even after death, it is not reasonable to believe that this happens for the rest?
Matthew 12:36 says, "I tell you that every word unprofitable that men have said give account on the Day of Judgment."
If we read only what is written without trying articulated interpretations, you understand that "have said" is the past, of course, referring to what has been said in this life and not what they could mean in the future (in fact, Jesus He is condemning the Pharisees who have just asserted that he drive out demons by Beelzebub).
Of this they realized the Day of Judgment.
In Matthew 23: 33-36 Jesus condemns the nation of Israel, especially the scribes and Pharisees for their hypocrisy and violence and says "that is on you all the righteous blood shed on earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah son of Barachiah, whom you assassinaste between the sanctuary and the altar. "
How could anyone ask for the blood of Abel and of all those who died later if their murderers were dead and then become sinless?
In 2 Timothy 4:14 the apostle Paul said, "Alexander the coppersmith has brought me much evil - Jehovah will repay him according to his works."
Jehovah would have made according to his works when?
Before his death, that is, in the first century?
Perhaps Jehovah intervened to punish all the persecutors of Christians in the first century?
Is it not clear that the apostle Paul is saying that Jehovah would remember the works of this Alessandro on Judgment Day?
From these writings it is clear that death does not automatically delete the sin but I will only do the Jehovah's Judgment - Compare Revelation 18: 5
As Romans 6:23 says the wages sin pays is death, and so, even if the death repay the debt, they need to remain in death .
This means that their eventual resurrection, however, should answer for their sins because, indeed, have not remained in that condition.
In fact the word "salary" and "pays" fit perfectly into this concept.
If because of my debts I had to sell my property (so paying back my debts) can not take back what I sold.
If i resuming the money I sold the property just to eradicate that debt , I would be back in debt.
The only way to recover those properties in a lawful is that someone pay instead of me giving me back the properties .
In fact the writing of Romans 6:23 ends with the words ... "but the gift God gives is everlasting life by Christ Jesus our Lord."
Christ paid the debt for us, allowing us to not remain in death or giving back the life that we had legally lost - Compare Matthew 18: 23-27
However this seems to suggest that the Day of Judgment will not automatically mean the destruction of sinners, and it is probably no coincidence that Jesus used the word "bear" - Matthew 10:15
By harmonizing the words of Paul, who harbored the hope that there would be a resurrection of both the righteous and the unrighteous, we can assume that it will be a period which governs, in extreme cases will lead to ultimate death, while everyone else will consist in a probationary period, more or less long and more or less hard, which will aim to achieve salvation - Compare Matthew 5:25, 26
There are many indications about it and then we do not go beyond what is written but in fact the book Revelation makes it clear that the resurrection will occur at the end of the millennium (not during), and that people will be judged on what you You are found written.
How they will weigh the individual sins of each individual is not known, but we are grateful that Christ Jesus to judge and not a simple man!
He being the image of God, we can be sure that his judgment will be just and right - Deuteronomy 32: 4; John 5:21, 22; 8:15, 16

Let's try to address this question too.
Is death to eliminate sin or is it the sacrifice of Christ?

More information came out in the conversation shown here

https://www.theworldnewsmedia.org/topic/47137-does-death-really-erase-sins/

Please do not respond after 5 minutes because it will be clear that you have not read the scriptures.

 

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