Dwayne Reed

Here again is where basic thinking ability is all that is needed. There was no need for salvation or redemption until after Adam's disobedience. The more you reply the more you reveal it is your private interpretation that is in error.

They will have to be resurrected in order to be preached to. The resurrection will give them the opportunity for life on earth.

The context of 1 Peter 3:19 helps us to understand who Peter was talking about. As verse 20 shows, he was speaking about disobedient angels. (compare Jude 6) As verse 18 shows, Jesus had been resurrected - then he preached. As pointed out early, no one in the grave are alive. No, Jesus was not preaching to any dead humans.

Actually, Hebrews 13:8 says, "Jesus is the same yesterday today and forever." That has another to do with whether he had a beginning or not. Jesus did not become the way to salvation until he actually the paid ransom with his blood and presented it to his Father. Then those chosen for life in heaven were baptized in holy spirit. No one ascended before Jesus.

Nice try... 1 Peter 4:6 is not about anyone physically dead. No amount of preaching would have benefited physically dead humans because, as Ecclesiastes 9:5 says, they “are conscious of nothing at all,” and Psalm 146:4 adds that at death a person’s “thoughts do perish.” As mentioned before, Ephesians 2:1-7, 17 does refer to persons who were spiritually dead and who came to life spiritually as a result of accepting the good news.

Actually, Jesus ransom sacrifice is the reason why there is a chance for those who have already died. Just think of how many have died that never had the opportunity to put faith in Jesus. Jesus did not become "the way" until the first century. We are all very fortunate you are not one of the judges of "the living and the dead."

If death does not free the unrighteous from sin there would be no hope for the 'evildoer' that Jesus promised would be in paradise. (Luke 23:43) "And I have hope toward God, which hope these men also look forward to, that there is going to be a resurrection of both the righteous and the unrighteous." (Acts 24:15) What good would be served by raising millions of people from the dead whose former lives were filled with vile deeds, only to tell them that they are vile and then execute them? The indication of the Scriptures is that when Haʹdes gives up those dead in it, they will be ‘judged individually according to the deeds’ they do following their resurrection. (Rev. 20:13) The resurrection will afford them an opportunity to live. As Hebrews 9:27, 28, “it is reserved for men to die once for all time” due to sin inherited from Adam, “but after this a judgment” that is made possible by the ransom sacrifice of Jesus Christ and that gives men the opportunity for “salvation.” Those who did good things will no doubt find it easier to continue in that course, and, if they keep on doing good right on through the final test following Christ’s thousand-year rule, it will be shown that theirs was a “resurrection of life.” Those who practices vile things will be granted the opportunity to change their ways and gain salvation, but in the case of those who do not do so, it will become evident at the time of that final test that theirs was a ‘resurrection of condemnatory judgment.’

Your conclusion of 2 Cor. 9:10 and Heb. 9:27 would render Romans 6:7, 23 as untrue. The scriptures do not contradict. However, the conclusions of men do.

It is quite simple why resurrection will take place before Satan is released at the end of Thousand Years. Those that "practiced vile things" . Romans 6:7, 23 helps us to understand that those that have died have already paid the wage for what they did before they died. So, there is no further judgment for what they did before they died. They will be judged for what they do after being resurrected. They must put faith in Jesus and take a stand for pure worship.

For those who would like to learn how Judgment Day and the Thousand Year Reign coincide, please refer to: What Does the Bible Really Teach? APPENDIX: Judgment Day - What Is It? https://www.jw.org/en/publications/books/bible-teach/what-is-judgment-day-1000-year-reign/

Sorry to rile you, but you are assuming way too much. Asking a side question and you answering yes or no does not take us away from the topic. The topic is still here. What you have failed to see in all of this is that the Thousand Year Reign is when all of these things described at Revelation chapter 20 occur. You have not explained away my reply regarding the "last day." If the resurrection does not occur during Christ's Thousand Year Reign, then Jesus will not have accomplished what his rule is designed to do, before he hands it back to his God and Father. (1 Cor. 15:27, 28) The last enemy death will not have been brought to nothing(1 Cor. 15:25, 26) if the physical resurrection has not occurred. Your misunderstanding of my reference to "come to life" as symbolic does not explain away that the purpose of the Thousand Year Reign is to restore what Adam lost - perfect human life for all faithful humans. The Thousand Year Reign serves no purpose if everyone that can have the possibility of perfect human life on a restored earthly paradise are not present to be judged. This will require that the dead "who practiced vile things" be resurrected, as John 5:29 reveals, in order to be judged during the Thousand Year Reign. You want to see a Scripture that says, in black & white, 'The resurrection will occur during the Thousand Year Reign." But it is only evident by an ability to reason with soundness of mind and considering everything the Bible has to say on the topic. With proper Bible study it becomes evident that the "Thousand Year Reign" and "Judgment Day" are the same. https://www.jw.org/en/publications/magazines/wp20120901/judgment-day/ You vaguely say you were never one of Jehovah's Witnesses but this statement of yours compelled me to ask. You said, "no amount of teaching from any Elders, WT's, Awakes, shepherding calls, brothers/sisters,...? " I wonder if you would even answer truthfully. This statement makes it hard to believe that you weren't. Were the elders making shepherding calls on you to help you see the light? another side note: Bible discussion should be an effort to appeal and reason together, not to win an argument. Your approach seems aggravated with an effort to belittle, rather than an effort to appeal.

Just wanted to see if could simply answer a yes or no question with a yes or no answer. I cannot determine if your reply is a yes or no.

Shiwii, Were you ever one of Jehovah's Witnesses?

Shiwiii, In reference to Revelations 20:13, can you not see how resurrection is described by "the sea and Hades" giving up those dead in them? In reference to resurrection during the Thousand Year Reign, an angel assured the prophet Daniel: “You will rest, but you will stand up for your lot at the end of the days.” (Daniel 12:13) Martha likewise believed that her brother, Lazarus, would “rise in the resurrection on the last day.” (John 11:24) The Bible connects this “last day” with Christ’s Kingdom rule at 1 Corinthians 15:25, 26, where Paul wrote: “For he/Christ must rule as king until God has put all enemies under his feet. And the last enemy, death, is to be brought to nothing.” Think about it...wouldn’t everyone have to be resurrected for “death to be brought to nothing?” In reference to your question about Revelation 20:5, as clearly stated, it is not “the rest of the dead” who share in the first resurrection. The first resurrection is for those who rule with Christ during the thousand years. When we compare Ephesians 2:1, we can see that the Scriptures also refer to death symbolically. With this and with John 11:24 in mind, in what sense do the rest of the dead not “come to life” until the end of the thousand years? Is it possible the rest of the dead come to life in the same sense as described at Ephesians 2:1? In this case meaning life free from all effects of sin? When we look at it with everything here discussed in mind, the “rest of the dead” could include all those who resurrected "on the last day," the survivors of the great tribulation, and those who may be born during that time. They all “come to life” by being relieved of the death-dealing effects of sin inherited from Adam, as described at Romans 5:12, by the end of the Thousand Year Reign. Could this be the case, Shiwii? If not, please provide a scriptural basis why it could not.