Jump to content
The World News Media

Chioke Lin

Member
  • Posts

    146
  • Joined

  • Last visited

Everything posted by Chioke Lin

  1. Are you suggesting, Benson is preventing young artist from achieving their goal, if that's what they wish to pursue, a life in the arts? I have no opinion one way or another on his status. My sister knew several stars, as did I. We treated them like normal people in our younger days. Some had advised my sister to pursue a career in commercials. Something about her bone structure. To me, she wasn't impressive. 😅 Did we hang around them, not the worldly ones? Too much drama. Like you said, anything can sound negative until it actually becomes something negative.
  2. This is true. However, not every Christian abides by it. Where does that leave, those Christians that are loyal and not want to add more fuel to the fire, just because, there's freedom of expression? Do you honestly think, Jesus was preoccupied by what the Pharisees were saying, more so with their lack of action toward God's will?
  3. Okay, thanks. I was thinking there was something new to, English wording. This would be a personal choice. I have sciatica, stenosis, and bulging spinal discs. I have severe pain 24/7 including sleep time which the pain can wake me up. This is why I don't take hard prescribed drugs because I know they can be addictive if taken for a long period of time, no matter which Pharma manufactures it. Abuse is abuse, no matter what. This shouldn't be an excuse by anyone to go outside the recommended dosage prescribed by a doctor to abuse, especially from a black market, where no one knows what those drugs contain. In his case, too much Fentanyl. What happened to Jackson. Lack of sleep. I have the same problem, But I don't around looking for a doctor to give me propofol anesthesia. Like, I said, rich people can get pretty much everything, that doesn't mean they should.
  4. Then what would prevent anyone from accepting Yoshua or Yesus in English form. Does Yesus in English make any sense? Does it make any sense that Yoshua in the Old Testament refers to Moses assistant and not Jesus?
  5. If we explain it this way, then yes. It is good if the explanations continue in this fashion. λέγω VIPA--1S λέγω λέγω VSPA--1S λέγω1 [Fri] λέγω impf. ἔλεγον; tenses beyond the present and imperfect supplied by εἶπον (q.v.); strictly gather and lay in order; hence, used of logical expression; (1) say, speak, tell, narrate (MT 3.9); (2) tell of, report, recount (MK 1.30); (3) with the sense derived from the context; (a) in direct discourse ask, say (MT 9.14); answer, say (MT 8.26); order, command, recommend (1J 5.16); assure, assert, especially in formulas such as ἀμὴν, ἀμὴν λ. ὑμῖν truly, truly I say to you (JN 1.51); maintain, declare (GA 4.1); (b) in designations call, name (MK 12.37); passive be called, be named (MT 1.16); (c) in explanatory foreign words mean, interpret, translate (JN 1.38) 0196 הָיָה hayah {haw-yaw} Meaning: 1) to be, become, come to pass, exist, happen, fall out 1a) (Qal) 1a1) ----- 1a1a) to happen, fall out, occur, take place, come about, come to pass 1a1b) to come about, come to pass 1a2) to come into being, become 1a2a) to arise, appear, come 1a2b) to become 1a2b1) to become 1a2b2) to become like 1a2b3) to be instituted, be established 1a3) to be 1a3a) to exist, be in existence 1a3b) to abide, remain, continue (with word of place or time) 1a3c) to stand, lie, be in, be at, be situated (with word of locality) 1a3d) to accompany, be with 1b) (Niphal) 1b1) to occur, come to pass, be done, be brought about 1b2) to be done, be finished, be gone That is the point. To simplify, so the reader can understand without them resorting to become scholars. I believe you have made a comment about the majority of us not being scholars.
  6. Since my bad English has been questioned before, and I'm trying very hard to learn proper grammar, is the word "then" supposed to be then or than, or does it matter which way the sentence is formed in this case? It is true that Prince had no desire to have his condition distract from his loyalty to God. A condition he inherited after falling off a stage and injuring himself. I guess the point should be for that "Sister" that is being judgmental herself would be, it's not that Prince needed to take subscribed pain medication, but having to go outside the medical profession to seek additional pain medication that actually caused his death. The way I see it, anyone in a high profile position needs to be more careful with their Christian conduct since they can acquire just about anything. If they reframe from bad conduct, then they have accomplished a lot as a Christian. That Sister should be mindful of that, the one that was responding to Tom. I do agree with that sister, any negativity is a joy for Satan, no matter where it's coming from.
  7. Should it matter? My sister knows a former band player from the "Sly and The Family Stones." She's gone door to door with him. I figure, to each their own in this case. Some apostles gave up their high positions to serve. The point there is, they were the first. Their evangelizing was different. If anyone can balance theirs lives to serve God in the proper manner, then no one should be critical of their bothers. That just shows envy and jealousy. If one becomes high profile. Not shaming the name of God would be a high priority. I remember, when "Prince" praised Jehovah in a ceremony he attended. President Obama was there, I think. Meantime, he found time to go door to door. But then, he died of a drug overdose.
  8. Yes. We just need to be careful when coining the phrase “He causes to become” since, the word “become” has a future tense tone to it. God has no future tense, he is the future tense. This is why, sometimes, the lexicons can get confusing themselves, if we don’t understand the ancient language in its proper context. Yod-Hey-Vav-Hey The four letters YHWH or YHVH derive from the Biblical Hebrew tri-consonantal root/verb h-y-h (hayah), meaning "to be". The name YHWH is a compound word made up of 3 verbs: "hayah hoveh yi'yeh", meaning " He was, He is, He will be ". Be·come /bəˈkəm/ verb 1. begin to be: "it is becoming clear that we are in a totally new situation" 2. (of clothing) look good on or suit (someone): Then we can use the word 'become' to mean, God “became” the God of Israel, and “he is” all that exist. "He will be" the God of Israel or God "begin to be" the God of Israel. Since the YHWH is actually supposed to be read from right to left, Then It reads Yod–(Yud)-Hey-Vav-Hey. Those that continue to claim The Tetragrammaton stands for Yahweh would need to explain how they arrived at that claim, themselves, since they are manipulating the “u” or “o”, and W to the English form. Yet, they continue with their criticism of the letter J. If you look at how they got the W, you just need to remove the “a” from “Vav” and it becomes 2-V’s or W. The same as saying double V. So, no, the name Yahweh would not be appropriate in that dead language.
  9. This also goes toward how the name "Joshua" (Heb. 4:8 ESV) for Jesus, can be confused with Joshua as Moses' assistant. The same confusion that exists when applying it in a dead language. Joshua (/ˈdʒɒʃuə/) or Yehoshua (Hebrew: יְהוֹשֻׁעַ Yəhōšūaʿ)[b] functioned as Moses' assistant in the books of Exodus and Numbers, Yeshua or Y'shua (ישוע; with vowel pointing Hebrew: יֵשׁוּעַ, romanized: Yēšūaʿ) was a common alternative form of the name Yehoshua (Hebrew: יְהוֹשֻׁעַ, romanized: Yəhōšūaʿ,
  10. Your illustration needs further study. I will provide 2 examples in English form. ESV Hebrews 4:8 For if Joshua had given them rest, God would not have spoken of another day later on. KJV Hebrews 4:8 For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day. How does your consistent statement work? The opposition is attempting to show, the name Jehovah is incorrect by using a dead language to the Jews. Without being critical, how do you defend the name of God, if both examples mean Y'sua to them?
  11. Then the rendering "He causes to become" doesn't fit that scheme, since it is speaking of a future event. God has no beginning and no end. The other two forms are more appreciate to that rendering. This is why the Org ties all the loose ends to an adequate rendering without confusing the issues with scholarly understanding. As you stated, not all scholars care about the Bible. There are, however, two kinds of scholars, those that look into the linguistics and those that look into the bible to interpret and understand it. Both are worthwhile for deep study and shouldn't be dismissed at a personal level, just as the Org has done to establish the rendering of God's name.
  12. Witness: "We all have our opinions, don't we. The person who wrote down her thoughts was using introspection to help her comprehend the God, "He causes to become" Arauna: "This was when I realized that the translation of "He causes to become" is a more accurate translation of this verse and is a causative verb." It appears both commentators have come to an agreement on what can be a derivative of the Hebrew syllable. The translation of "I am that I am" which is in English form is not discarded from that derivative. Another way of translating the psalmist words. 13And Moses said to God, “Look, when I come to the Israelites and say to them, ‘The God of your fathers has sent me to you,’ and they say to me, ‘What is His name?,’ what shall I say to them?” 14And God said to Moses, “ʾEhyeh-ʾAsher-’Ehyeh, I-Will-Be-Who-I-Will-Be.” And He said, “Thus shall you say to the Israelites, ‘ʾEhyeh has sent me to you.’” This would be the most appropriate translation, since the "e" is inclusive. Do all those forms deviate from "He causes to become"? Now, how about the confusion between YHWH-Y'sua and YHWH-Jah, if we only use, he causes to become?
  13. I'm sure a serious question would first need to be asked, and not some long-drawn opinion in order to have a meaningful bible discussion, and not just an argument generated by animosity. No Christian is supposed to argue, much like it's done here. So, it makes me wonder, how many consider themselves Christians. But, this "topic" is about God's name, not some kind of, circular way at criticism. We can all do that without breaking a sweat. It seems your presentation on how the name of God sounded seems a little outlandish, since we don't know exactly how the tone was for praising God in ancient times. We need to consider, how scribes manipulated the YHWH to make it seem to look like something else. Regardless if we are scholars or rabbi's, the professionals have a better understanding on how the YHWH was formed. I AM THAT I AM When Moses met God at the burning bush, Moses asked God what his name was. God responded, “I Am That I Am” (Exodus 3:13-14). In Hebrew the name is spelled YHWH, or Yahweh. In the several centuries before Christ, Jews were not allowed to pronounce the name because it was holy. When they came to the name Yahweh in the Scripture, they said Adonai (‘the Lord’). See the list of names for God at the entry for God. It wouldn’t matter to a Hebrew. If God’s name came up, they substituted God's personal name out of fear. Those that God favored, had no problem praising God without fear. Scholars recognize where scribes wanted to reconfigure the YHWH to mean something else. Translators of the Old Testament have not agreed upon the correct translation of the name Yahweh. Since it is translated into the Greek as kurios, which means, “Lord,” many have translated Yahweh as “LORD.” However, ‘Adonai, which is best translated “Lord,” appears with Yahweh in various instances. The King James Version, for example, translates Yahweh as “God,” and ‘Adonai as “Lord.” Some modern translators have chosen to maintain the use of Yahweh. The name Jehovah has been judged by translators to be unacceptable. This name arose due to the Jewish practice of not pronouncing Yahweh because of Leviticus 24:16, “He that blasphemes the name of Yahweh shall surely be put to death” (Leviticus 24:16). This warning against a vain or blasphemous use of the name was taken in an absolute sense, especially after Israel’s exile to Babylon (Amos 6:10). Because of this, when reading the Old Testament, the Jews substituted either Elohim or ‘Adonai for Yahweh. From this, the practice of adding the vowels of ‘Adonai to YHWH (JeHoWaH) became established. Nehemia Gordon Findings, found the name Yahovah. So, the substitution of the J for Y and “e” for “a” is appropriate in the English language. Now if the discussion is going to extend, to how we arrive at those substitutions from "a" to "e" then we need to understand how the language transformed within the Jews. The professionals also have a good explanation for that transformation. So, in English, the name of God is Jehovah, and it's appropriate under the Hebrew scheme of language.
  14. It appears a forgotten post has comeback to life from 2017. The same problem exists today as it did in 2017. Either you believe in the name of God by its language interpretation, or you don't. If the YHWH is in the form of Aramaic, Hebrew, Greek or any other formed language, the YHWH or YHVH still remains. Diana Lobel Department of Religion, Boston University Abstract Saadya Gaon translates Ehyeh asher Ehyeh into Arabic as “the eternal (beginningless) that will not cease to be.” Abraham Maimonides makes a conceptual identification between Saadya’s interpretation of Ehyeh asher Ehyeh as eternity and the assertion of his father that Ehyeh asher Ehyeh signifies Necessary Existence. Moses Maimonides draws an allusive relationship between Ehyeh asher Ehyeh and the Tetragrammaton, perhaps hinting at a connection between the Tetragrammaton and the root hayah he is hesitant to openly spell out. As his son suggests, Maimonides hints that Ehyeh asher Ehyeh offers an explication of the Tetragrammaton. Introduction: the Tetragrammaton and Ehyeh asher Ehyeh Among the mysterious names of God in the Bible, we find the ineffable fourletter name, the Tetragrammaton, Y-H-V-H, described in rabbinic literature as the explicit or articulated name (shem ha-meforash), or the distinctive, particular name (shem ha-meyuḥad). We find many statements in rabbinic literature regarding prohibitions on pronouncing, writing, and erasing the Tetragrammaton.1 In daily Jewish prayer, all blessings address God by this mysterious name, although in place of pronouncing it, Jews from very ancient times substituted the name “My Lord” (Adonai). 2 A second mysterious name of God is Ehyeh asher Ehyeh. This name is paradoxical precisely because it can suggest two opposing connotations, one fixed and the other fluid. The name might suggest that “I am who I am” or “I will be who I will be” in the fixed sense of an eternal, unchanging essence, or it might suggest that “I will be changing and open according to historical circumstances.” A third possibility is that the verse suggests that the infinite, mysterious God cannot be confined to any particular name. The name will never be erased. The only difference a Christian need to apply it more seriously, is when "lord" or "god" is used for Jesus in some form of Trinity.
  15. Are you referring to the video? I can see many discrepancies with it. If you mean, me posting other people's published works, I will direct you to them. The video presenter for one hand no hieroglyphic experience. He mentioned something similar on another video. He was shown, how that badly deteriorated column read. I have the video, but, it appears, it takes forever to download. Either way, I didn't find myself in a tizzy. Let's keep the remarks friendly.
  16. This is true. That's why I stick with the classics. They knew better how to deal with understanding. In the first place, the known linguistic facts in the case need to be listed and dated. The first of these is that the oldest authenticated form of the divine name is the tetragrammaton itself as it occurs in line 18 of the Moabite Stone of the ninth century B.c. Cowley's attempt to deny this2 since it was against his own theory proves too much. His argument would eliminate the name of Israel's God from the stone, but it should naturally appear somewhere in relation to Chemosh, and line 18 is a most fitting point for that to happen. Second, his own etymology posits one unknown quantity to explain another, which leaves the tetragrammaton as decidedly the easiest alternative, with the result that this form of the name emerges with a double emphasis as the oldest-known example of it. It appears, in 1926, Leroy Waterman would have agreed with Nehemia Gordon. The above goes toward "hieroglyphics and cuneiform" "Aramaic and Hebrew script" not people. That's been my idealistic view all along.
  17. Ironically, the person in the video wasn't an archeologist. He got his master’s degree in archeology after studying in Israel for 10 years. Before that, he just supported a few digs. He didn't know anything about how to study archeology.
  18. There are places even in today's world where there are nomadic tribes. Just saying. It shouldn't be a point of contention. I was referring to it in general, not specific. The specific thing I was referencing was, the territory of Egypt that might have included the Sudan region in ancient times. But, thanks.
  19. The video just shows another instance where God's name has been found. In Egypt, it's not the first time. This is just the latest. If archeologist continue to look, they will find plenty of evidence. Some will be open to the public, some will not, due to human intervention of not wanting God's name to be truly known. https://www.breakingchristiannews.com/articles/display_art.html?ID=7493#:~:text=The oldest historical mention of ancient Israel occurs,people called the Shasu. (Photo%3A the Merneptah stele) This "Stele of YHWH in Egypt" is, from referencing, The Prophecies of Isaiah 18–20 concerning Egypt and Kush. Another proof of the "oldest historical mention" of the "tetragrammaton" in Egypt. The Vatican has had in its position a reference of Yahwe from about 490CE that they just released about 2 years ago. What matters, God does have a personal name, and it should be used. That thing about God's name being forbidden is a man-made thing. Keep in mind that "Nehemia Gordon" found a specific instance of God's name with the (Y) Yahovah.
  20. I believe the mention of nomads would be inconsequential, since anyone after the flood would be considered nomads. We would also need to consider where the territory of Sudan was in relation to Ancient Egypt. Fresh examination of the Egyptian evidence changes everything. Whether or not Yahweh could already have existed as a divine name near 1400 BCE, the reference here is not first of all to the god but to a specified unit of what an Egyptian scribe designated “Shasu-land.”35 The Egyptian evidence derives from a single military encounter, and the older version, from the reign of Amenhotep III, lacks any indication of a southern setting, leaving this to be reconstructed from the later Ramses II text. What is most important in any case is not the geography but the identification of Yhwȝ as part of the Shasu. This material is by far older than all other evidence, and if the name indeed matches the divine name, as many have concluded, no account of Yahweh’s roots can begin elsewhere. Further, my interpretation includes new observations that point discussion in previously unimagined directions, and the reader will benefit from knowing from the start what I have done with Yhwȝ. This is indeed “before Israel.” Is this the oldest historical inscription found? Maybe, however, there's another team of archeologists that suggest their find of a curse tablet with the name of god YHWH is the oldest inscription found. https://www.the-sun.com/news/science/4976118/tiny-hebrew-curse-tablet-god/ From this video. Of course, the Hebrews were looked at as enemies of Egypt. They were enslaved, so they would be Nomads of Yahweh and enemies to the Egyptian throne. The point should be, there is physical evidence for the name of God after writing was formed. After Noah exited the Ark, God's name was still in song. However, there should be no doubt who Noah was praising in song.
  21. Since John in John 10:10 is referring to Jesus being the good shepherd, how can this passage be interpreted? Once again, the word “destroy” is used. What bible example can we link with John? Jeremiah 23:1 New International Version (NIV) The Righteous Branch 23 “Woe to the shepherds who are destroying and scattering the sheep of my pasture!” declares the Lord. Ezekiel 34:3 English Standard Version (ESV) 3 You eat the fat, you clothe yourselves with the wool, you slaughter the fat ones, but you do not feed the sheep. English Standard Version (ESV) So, what’s the theme in John? God’s sheep. We know Jesus sacrifice was to benefit mankind, so the evil intent of a thief could not benefit from that sacrifice. The word "destroy" is losing its biblical value by being overplayed. This is why I like the Danker, Greek NT Lexicon. It brings a fuller application to the bible.
  22. We have to be mindful when using certain words, especially when using a lexicon. Take for instance the word Abbadon. We can see it is linked to destroyer. However, can the word "destroyer" actually be applied to an intent. Instead, we would have to think of the proper intention as "destruction" or "ruin." There are many ways to express it without damaging the context. ABADDON [Heb ˒ăbaddôn ( אֲבַדֹּון )]. Derived from Heb ˒ābad, ―became lost,’’ ―be ruined, Destroyed, ”perish,” Abaddon has a variety of nuanced meanings. A poetic synonym for the abode of the dead, meaning ―Destruction,‖ or ― (the place of) destruction.’’ Abaddon occurs in parallel and in conjunction with Sheol (Job 26:6 and Prov 15:11; 27:20). It is also found in conjunction with Death (Job 28:22) and in parallel with the grave (Ps 88:12—Eng 88:11). Although a place of mystery which is hidden from human eyes, Abaddon is clearly known by God (Job 26:6; Prov 15:11). It is twice personified: (1) along with Death, it speaks (Job 28:22); and (2) along with Sheol, it is insatiable (Prov 27:20). It is also remote: in Job 31:12, adultery becomes ―a fire that consumes unto [as far as] Abaddon.” See also DEAD, ABODE OF THE. In Rev 9:11, the word ―Abaddon‖ is personified as ―the angel of the bottomless pit.‖ It is also identified as the king of the demonic ―locusts‖ described in Rev 9:3, 7–10, and is explained for Greek-speaking readers as Apollyon (Gk apollyōn), “destroyer.” The LXX usually translates Heb ˒abaddon as Gk apōleia, ―destruction‖; the Vg renders it as Latin perditio, ―ruin, destruction‖ (whence Eng ―perdition, ‖ which ordinarily means “hell”); in Syr (Peshitta), the cognate word means ―destruction, ‖ and is sometimes used in the Psalms to render ―the Pit, ‖ which is another OT synonym of Sheol. In rabbinic literature, the word has come to mean the place of punishment reserved for the wicked. Current English versions render this word variously in the OT: “Abaddon,” ―Destruction/destruction, ‖ “he place of destruction,” ―Perdition/perdition, ‖ ―the abyss, ‖ ―the world of the dead.‖ In the single NT occurrence, the word is consistently transliterated as ―Abaddon.‖ HERBERT G. GRETHER Then, according to the bible, Jesus will cause the destruction of all evil on earth, and will ruin Satan in the process. Some Bible dictionaries have a simple notation. This is why, the best evidence is a complete descriptive. Then we can see the word "destroyer" is not being used in its proper syntax. The word "destroyer" alone has an evil intent. That's not Christ. Jesus intent is to purify the earth again from evil, as God the father intended.
  23. I made no distinction between Théo and Kyrios, other than to show how some might confuse the Hebrew language by the application of the Tetragrammaton. It appeared the lexicon was being mishandled by the application of some words and letter formation. It's good that we all have started to readjust our application of the Tetragrammaton. That's a great thing, especially when the commentator "Arauna" made such a fine presentation. I simply meant, YHWH can be used to mean Jesus, which we know is incorrect. Norm Mundhenk The author recently retired as a UBS Translation Consultant, having served in Papua New Guinea and Indonesia. In the opening verses of Mark there is a significant quotation from the Old Testament. Mark says that it is from Isaiah, and the most important part of the quotation is from Isaiah, though it begins with phrases that seem to be from Exodus and Malachi. “See, I am sending my messenger ahead of you, who will prepare your way; the voice of one crying out in the wilderness: ‘Prepare the way of the Lord, make his paths straight.’” (Mark 1.2-3 NRSV) There are at least three characters in this quotation, all of whom we meet in the first line: “I,” “my messenger,” and “you.” It seems clear that Mark intends the quotation to be understood in such a way that “I” is God, “you” is Jesus, and “my messenger” is John the Baptist. In the key part of the quotation, then, which comes from Isa 40.3, “the voice” clearly refers to John and “the Lord” is Jesus. John carries out his own work of preparing the Lord’s way by crying out to everyone else to prepare the way. In Isa 40, “the Lord” is clearly God himself. Not only is this clear from the context, but the Hebrew text has YHWH, and “the way of YHWH/the Lord” is used in parallel with “a highway for our God” in both Hebrew and the Septuagint (LXX). It seems highly significant, then, that Mark (and Matthew and Luke; John also uses the first line of the parallelism) has felt free to apply this passage to Jesus, altering the second parallel line so that instead of referring to the highway/ paths “of our God” it refers to “his” paths. Since in both Old Testament and New Testament the two lines clearly refer to the same person, the change to a pronoun in the New Testament does not change the meaning of the original. Jesus is Lord This is just one of many places in the New Testament where an OT passage using the Tetragrammaton (YHWH) is applied to Jesus. Many translators may not realize how important this fact is for our work. Let me try to spell out the significance of what the NT writers have done. Jesus is frequently called “Lord” in the New Testament. The Greek word kurios can of course mean simply “sir,” and in many places (especially in the Gospels, such as Luke 9.61; John 4.11; 5.7; 8.11; 9.36; 20.15) it seems clear that this is the intended sense, even though Jesus is the one addressed. But, I do get your point as well.
  24. Of course not. The Org has made it clear where, separations should be made. But's that's not what's happening here, isn't it. Even the lexicons are being misapplied. There's no such thing as God being evil. The lexicons are not giving that impression by certain words. We are making the bible out to be confusing.
×
×
  • Create New...

Important Information

Terms of Service Confirmation Terms of Use Privacy Policy Guidelines We have placed cookies on your device to help make this website better. You can adjust your cookie settings, otherwise we'll assume you're okay to continue.