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Jesus.defender

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Posts posted by Jesus.defender

  1. On 7/20/2016 at 11:06 PM, JW Insider said:

    Most of the writers of the New Testament books did not identify their authorship, either. All four gospels, for example, are completely anonymous, and we only go by later "catholic" traditions to attach names to them. For example:

    The book of Matthew is anonymous. It never claims to be written by a man named Matthew, and gives absolutely no clue about whether it was even written by one of the apostles. Naming it Matthew was based on the fact that the apostle named Matthew was rumored to have written a gospel account in Hebrew, which is lost. All we know is that this gospel that we call Matthew was NOT that gospel, nor was it a Greek translation of anything that had been previously written in Hebrew. Since we call it Matthew only because there might have been a lost gospel by Matthew, this might even be an indication that Matthew was one of the least likely authors. (Also, Jesus picked "unlettered and ordinary" men as apostles, and separate evidence shows that even tax collectors could also be illiterate, i.e., unlettered.)

    Mark is also anonymous. No where in the book do we have any indication of who wrote it, nor does the Bible anywhere speak of Mark writing a gospel. Just like with Matthew, this tradition started long after the apostles had died. One of the reasons it is called Mark is because Mark is mentioned as a one-time traveling companion of Paul and if a book could not be assigned to an apostle, it had to be assigned to someone who had traveled with the apostles. An even later tradition has Mark traveling with Peter, based perhaps on the passage in Acts about when Paul and Barnabas had a fight over whether they should take Mark with them. (By the time the book was fully attributed to Mark, there already was a separate Gospel of Peter and a book from Barnabas, parts of which still survive, although very few people think Peter and Barnabas were the actual writers of those books.)

    Luke does not claim to be the author of Luke, nor does anything in the book of Luke or elsewhere in the Bible identify him as the author. The same person wrote the book of Acts, which also does not identity Luke as the author. The author mentions that there are many others who have undertaken to write accurate gospels, including  those who had been eyewitnesses. The author of Luke does not claim to be an eyewitness. A traveling companion of Paul is very likely the author, and the Greek is excellent. So choosing to identify the physician Luke as the author makes sense. (Mark and Barnabas were already assigned to other books.) The author makes no claim as to having ever traveled with Paul, but the change of pronoun "we" the latter portion of the book of Acts is a good indication that it was someone who knew Paul and probably traveled with Paul. (Also note that Paul, when quoting material about the Lord's Evening Meal, comes closest to using the language of this gospel account that we call Luke.)

    John is not only anonymous, it teases us about the authorship by saying it was from the disciple that Jesus loved. There is no evidence that this was written by a man named John, and the authorship of the book is often placed at the end of the first century or even later. The style of Greek and vocabulary indicates that the writer is the same as the the "older man" who wrote the anonymous letters that we call first, second and third John. But the Greek is very good and very different from the choppy and sometimes badly formed Greek in the book of Revelation. That's why "John" the author of Revelation is often not considered to be the same as the author of the anonymous gospel and anonymous letters that tradition has called John. If the John who identifies himself as the writer of Revelation is the apostle John, then this could indicate that the person who did not identify himself as the author of the gospel and letters would not be the apostle John, and vice versa.

    Paul's letters are different. They are identified as having been written by Paul within the letters. The book of Hebrews is anonymous however, and this is why some would assign it to Apollos or Aquila or someone else. (Tertullian thought it was written by Barnabas. Hippolytus thought it was written by Clement of Rome. Origen thought it might be by either Clement or Luke.) James, Peter and Jude are also identified.

    WHO TRANSLATED THE NWT?

  2. On 7/11/2016 at 5:22 PM, JWTheologian said:

    The subject matter is what I was referring too, nothing else. It seems your definition of Jesus is therefore, as a prankster.

     

     

    Really?

     

    Did Jesus really say He was God?

    That’s exactly how Jesus’ original audience seemed to take it when He said, “I and the Father are one.” In fact, the Jews were ready to kill Him right there! Why? “Because you,” they said, “a mere man, claim to be God” (John 10:33).

    On another occasion, He used the personal name of Israel’s God–the name revealed to Moses (Exodus 3:14)–to refer to Himself. And He even used the Torah for context, so no one would misunderstand Him: “Before Abraham was, I AM” (John 8:58). This would be about wild as telling a Muslim, “I am your God, Allah.” Don’t try that in Saudi Arabia! It’s no wonder the Jews tried to stone Him to death. That was the exact penalty for blasphemy under the Jewish legal system. It was pretty clear to everyone there  that He was saying, “I am Israel’s God.”


    Why Jesus is God? The Apostle Thomas called Jesus God.John 20:27-29: 2. The Apostle Peter called Jesus God.2 Peter 1:1: 3.The Apostle John called Jesus God.John 1:1-3, 4.God the Father called Jesus God.Hebrews 1:8: 5. God the Father called Jesus God. 6.Isaiah the Prophet said the Messiah would be God.Isaiah 9:67. The Jews who crucified Jesus understood Him to be saying that He was equal with God.John 5:18: 8.Jesus called Himself "I AM", the Old Testament name for God (Exodus 3:14).John 8:58-59. 9.Jesus calls Himself "the Alpha and Omega," the title of Almighty God.Revelation 22:12-13. 10. Like God (Gen. 1:1) Jesus created.Colossians 1:16-1711. Like God, Jesus forgives sin.Mark 2:5-7, 10-11:12. Like God, Jesus gives eternal life.John 10:27-28: 13. Like God, Jesus received, receives and will receive worship.Matthew 14:32-33. 14. Jesus said that only God was good; and Jesus was good. John 10:11: "I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd gives His life for the sheep."John 10:11: "I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd gives His life for the sheep."Jesus was as good as they come. He was "sinless," "holy," "righteous," "innocent," "undefiled," and "separate from sinners." (Hebrews 7:26) That's pretty good! 15. Like God, Jesus can be present in more than one place at the same time.Matthew 18:20: 16. One of Jesus' titles is "God with us."Matthew 1:23. 17. Jesus' blood is called God's blood.Acts 20:28: 18. Jesus has the same nature as God.Hebrews 1:3a: 19. Jesus spoke as God.Jesus did not speak as one of God's prophets: "thus says the Lord," but as God: "I say to you."Matthew 5:27-29. 20. Like God (Psalm 136:3), Jesus is called the Lord of Lords and King of kings.Revelation 17:14. And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn. ( WHEN WAS GOD PIERCED? ). And he shall pass through Judah; he shall overflow and go over, he shall reach even to the neck; and the stretching out of his wings shall fill the breadth of thy land, O Immanuel (means God Among Us). 

    John 1:1, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

    John 1:14, "And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth."

    John 8:58 "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am." Crossreference with Exodus 3:14 "And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you."

    John 10:33 "The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God."

    John 20:28 "And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God."

    Collossians 2:9 "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily."

    Hebrews 1:8 "But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: "

    Matthew 4:10 "Then saith Jesus unto him, Get thee hence, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve." Crossreference with Matthew 2:2, Matthew 2:11, Matthew 28:9.

    Isaiah 44:6 "Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God." Crossreference with Revelation 1:17 "And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last: I am he." and Revelation 1:8 "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty."

    2Peter. Jehovah The Father appears.

    John 1. Jehovah the son.

    John 8:58 Jesus identifies Himself as Jehovah "I Am"

    Acts 5. Jehovah the Holy Spirit identified.

  3. 44 minutes ago, JWTheologian said:

    Its flattering when I see a pair of born again Christians coming together to hypothesis that Jesus is God. While it is an antiquated view? It seems to making its way back since The Catholic Pope right now is a Jesuit. The best argument a Cardinal once gave me was John 1:1. “The Word”

    It has more of an impressive overture to figuring the scale of Deity Jesus was. Then you have to file the myriad of information from the Jewish, Coptic, and Early Christian tradition. Of course this would have to be after the Nicene Fathers, and after the reformation of the 15 century.

    The thing, this Cardinal couldn’t answer, that is, with the for mentioned scripture, there’s always room for confusion. Trinitarians always find a need to join the Father, Son, and the Holy ghost into one, by misinterpreting scripture. It suggests ancient script can neither be understood or translated to a proper meaning or definition.

    Yet with the variations of scripture, one can understand the intent the writer meant to rely. One is Luke 23:34.

    Then Jesus said, “Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they are doing.” And they divided up His garments by casting lots.

    The question the Cardinal could not answer was this: Since God has no beginning or an end? Why would God find it a need to materialize? It was for the benefit of who, and why would Jesus the Father need to supplicate to himself.

    Same question from a different view point. Matthew 27:46.

    About the ninth hour, Jesus cried out in a loud voice, “Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?” which means, “My God, My God, why have you forsaken Me?

    Why would God find it a need to yell out in a loud voice, if he is one and the same. Is God, a God of trickery? Did Jesus find it a need to deceive his audience? What was the purpose of looking up to the heavens if he created it, and the angelic realm? To supplicate to himself. That would imply a delusional Christ, a wicked Messiah, because he’d be crazy enough to talk to himself, and deceive a group of people all this time.

    It is only the absurdity that some suggest that the Trinity has any merit. It would be equally absurd to suggest that Jesus was the creator or co-creator of this system implied by the librarian, instead of a Master Builder.

    So, Jesus (Yahushua) the Christ becomes “lord and Savior” “the anointed one” (messiah) in its original form, “Help of Jehovah or Savior” not as God but as the “word” a God, which is a lesser deity for being the first created, and savior of humanities sins.

    Wow, you are WAY off on so many points.

     

    the pope had NOTHING to do with the fact that Jesus is God. Had NOTHING to do with nicea. the watchtower has LIED to you.

     

    Did Jesus really say He was God?

    That’s exactly how Jesus’ original audience seemed to take it when He said, “I and the Father are one.” In fact, the Jews were ready to kill Him right there! Why? “Because you,” they said, “a mere man, claim to be God” (John 10:33).

    On another occasion, He used the personal name of Israel’s God–the name revealed to Moses (Exodus 3:14)–to refer to Himself. And He even used the Torah for context, so no one would misunderstand Him: “Before Abraham was, I AM” (John 8:58). This would be about wild as telling a Muslim, “I am your God, Allah.” Don’t try that in Saudi Arabia! It’s no wonder the Jews tried to stone Him to death. That was the exact penalty for blasphemy under the Jewish legal system. It was pretty clear to everyone there  that He was saying, “I am Israel’s God.”


    Why Jesus is God? The Apostle Thomas called Jesus God.John 20:27-29: 2. The Apostle Peter called Jesus God.2 Peter 1:1: 3.The Apostle John called Jesus God.John 1:1-3, 4.God the Father called Jesus God.Hebrews 1:8: 5. God the Father called Jesus God. 6.Isaiah the Prophet said the Messiah would be God.Isaiah 9:67. The Jews who crucified Jesus understood Him to be saying that He was equal with God.John 5:18: 8.Jesus called Himself "I AM", the Old Testament name for God (Exodus 3:14).John 8:58-59. 9.Jesus calls Himself "the Alpha and Omega," the title of Almighty God.Revelation 22:12-13. 10. Like God (Gen. 1:1) Jesus created.Colossians 1:16-1711. Like God, Jesus forgives sin.Mark 2:5-7, 10-11:12. Like God, Jesus gives eternal life.John 10:27-28: 13. Like God, Jesus received, receives and will receive worship.Matthew 14:32-33. 14. Jesus said that only God was good; and Jesus was good. John 10:11: "I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd gives His life for the sheep."John 10:11: "I am the good shepherd. The good shepherd gives His life for the sheep."Jesus was as good as they come. He was "sinless," "holy," "righteous," "innocent," "undefiled," and "separate from sinners." (Hebrews 7:26) That's pretty good! 15. Like God, Jesus can be present in more than one place at the same time.Matthew 18:20: 16. One of Jesus' titles is "God with us."Matthew 1:23. 17. Jesus' blood is called God's blood.Acts 20:28: 18. Jesus has the same nature as God.Hebrews 1:3a: 19. Jesus spoke as God.Jesus did not speak as one of God's prophets: "thus says the Lord," but as God: "I say to you."Matthew 5:27-29. 20. Like God (Psalm 136:3), Jesus is called the Lord of Lords and King of kings.Revelation 17:14. And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn. ( WHEN WAS GOD PIERCED? ). And he shall pass through Judah; he shall overflow and go over, he shall reach even to the neck; and the stretching out of his wings shall fill the breadth of thy land, O Immanuel (means God Among Us). 

    John 1:1, "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."

    John 1:14, "And the Word became flesh, and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, glory as of the only begotten from the Father, full of grace and truth."

    John 8:58 "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am." Crossreference with Exodus 3:14 "And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you."

    John 10:33 "The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God."

    John 20:28 "And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God."

    Collossians 2:9 "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily."

    Hebrews 1:8 "But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: "

    Matthew 4:10 "Then saith Jesus unto him, Get thee hence, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve." Crossreference with Matthew 2:2, Matthew 2:11, Matthew 28:9.

    Isaiah 44:6 "Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God." Crossreference with Revelation 1:17 "And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last: I am he." and Revelation 1:8 "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty."

  4. On 5/28/2016 at 8:34 PM, Manuel Boyet Enicola said:

    The word translated "worship" is προσκυνέω (proskyneo) in Greek.  So what is the meaning of προσκυνέω? 

    According to a Greek lexicon, this could mean:

    1. to kiss the hand to (towards) one, in token of reverence
    2. among the Orientals, esp. the Persians, to fall upon the knees and touch the ground with the forehead as an expression of profound reverence
    3. in the NT by kneeling or prostration to do homage (to one) or make obeisance, whether in order to express respect or to make supplication
    The NWT is therefore correct in translating the term as "obeisance."
    Interestingly, the Catholic Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition (DRA) uses "adore" and Young's Literal Translation (YLT) uses "bow".  Note that the word (προσκυνέω) is translated differently in the bible for each occurrence.

    NWT Translators Did Not Know Biblical Hebrew Or Greek

    The Watchtower Bible calls the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures one of the best translations to be found. But is it a translation or merely are gross distortions of the actual Greek and Hebrew manuscripts based on these men’s opinions. The FORWARD of the New World Translation in 1961 edition, on page 5 states, "It is a very responsible thing to translate the Holy Scriptures from their original languages, Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek, into modern speech ... The translators who have a fear and love of the divine Author of the Holy Scriptures feel especially a responsibility toward Him to transmit his thoughts and declarations as accurately as possible." Have their translators been responsible? Are they true to the original languages?
     
    The men that comprised the Translation Committee were not even Greek scholars qualified to translate the Bible. These men were: N.H. Knorr, F. W. Franz the 4th President, A.D. Schroeder, G.D. Gangas and M. Henschel (write to Personal Freedom Outreach, P.O. Box 26062, St. Louis, Missouri 63136 for paper documentation). All met together in these translation sessions. The translation committee requested that the names of the translators remain secret even after their deaths (Jehovah's Witnesses in the Divine Purpose, p. 258).
     
    Franz was asked in a courtroom in Scotland, "Why the secrecy?" he said, "Because the committee of translation wanted it to remain anonymous and not seek any glory or honour at the making of a translation, and having any names attached thereto." The attorney replied, "Writers of books and translators do not always get glory and honour for their efforts, do they?" (Pursuer's Proof of Douglas Walsh vs. The Right Honourable James Latham, M.P., P.C., Scottish Court of Sessions, p. 92 Nov. 1954).
     
    In 1954, in a Scotland trial, Fred Franz, then head of the Watchtower Editorial Board, admitted that he himself was the one who had checked the accuracy of the translation and recommended its publication. (Douglas Walsh v. The Right Honorable James Latham Clyde, M.P., P.C., etc., Scotland, 1954, (1958 ed.).p.88.)
     
    The following is from the trial transcript: -
    (Q): Insofar as translation of the Bible itself is undertaken, are you responsible for that?
    (A): I have been authorized to examine a translation and determine its accuracy and recommend its acceptance in the form in which it is submitted.
    Later, Franz was asked about his own involvement in the translating(Douglas Walsh v. The Right Honorable James Latham
    Clyde, M.P., P.C., etc., Scotland, 1954, (1958 ed.).p.92)
    (Q) : Were you yourself responsible for the translation of the Old Testament?
    ( A ) : Again I cannot answer that question...
    Here, under oath, Franz refused to confirm or deny he was the translator of the Hebrew text. Why wouldn't he say that he did not translate the Old Testament? The court also wondered "why" and asked (ibid)
    (Q): Why the secrecy?
    (A): Because the committee of translation wanted it to remain anonymous and not seek any glory or honour at the making of a translation, and having any names attached thereto.
     
    Why is it the writers of the New Testament books identified their authorship by their names, we know they were not seeking honor.
     
    The facts speak for themselves. The real reason would be that the translators could not be checked since they had no qualifications and anyone investigating this could not find anyone to assume responsibility for the translation. A shrewd plan indeed.
     
    According to Raymond Franz, only Fred Franz had "sufficient knowledge of the Bible languages to attempt translation of this kind. He had studied Greek for two years in the University of Cincinnati but was only self taught In Hebrew." Raymond Franz, Crisis of Conscience (Atlanta: Commentary Press, 1983).
     
    Not one of the men had ever studied Greek, and wouldn't know the difference between an alpha or a omega. Only three of the five had even finished high school. Of those three only one went on to College. His name was Fredrick Franz, the same man who became the President of the Jehovah's Witnesses. He did begin at the University of Cincinatti but only completed two years. He then dropped out of College after the first semester in 1913 because he believed what Russell told him, that Christ was returning in 1914. He does not have even the most basic college degree, and certainly does not possess a degree for advanced study of the Bible. In fact, outside of the Watchtower circle Franz is not recognized by anyone as a scholar.
     
    As M. James Penton, a former Jehovah's Witness and historian, has written, "to all intents and purposes the New World Translation is the work of one man-Frederick Franz." M. James Penton, Apocalypse Delayed: The Story of Jehovah's Witnesses (Toronto: University of Toronto Press, 1985),
     
    The men who make up the "translation committee" were self-appointed men lacking any adequate schooling or background in biblical languages unable to function as Bible Translators. Their purpose was not to translate the Scripture into a modern version of the Bible but to justify their theology to their people and have ammunition against Christianity as it is practiced today.
     
    The New World Translation is a fabrication with no scholarship involved. It was specifically created to make the Bible agree their preconceived theology. It was made for their people to believe WT doctrine and uphold their false belief that Jesus is Michael the Archangel not God.
     
     
    What leading Greek scholars say about the NWT:
     
    Dr. Bruce M. Metzger, professor of New Testament at Princeton University, calls the NWT "a frightful mistranslation," "Erroneous" and "pernicious" "reprehensible" "If the Jehovah's Witnesses take this translation seriously, they are polytheists." (Professor of New Testament Language and Literature)

    Dr. William Barclay, a leading Greek scholar, said "it is abundantly clear that a sect which can translate the New Testament like that is intellectually dishonest."
    British scholar H.H. Rowley stated, "From beginning to end this volume is a shining example of how the Bible should not be translated."

    "Well, as a backdrop, I was disturbed because they (Watchtower) had misquoted me in support of their translation." (These words were excerpted from the tape, "Martin and Julius Mantey on The New World Translation", Mantey is quoted on pages 1158-1159 of the Kingdom interlinear Translation)

    Dr. Julius Mantey , author of A Manual Grammar of the Greek New Testament, calls the NWT "a shocking mistranslation." "Obsolete and incorrect." "It is neither scholarly nor reasonable to translate John 1:1 'The Word was a god.'"
    "I have never read any New Testament so badly translated as The Kingdom Interlinear Translation of The Greek Scriptures.... it is a distortion of the New Testament. The translators used what J.B. Rotherham had translated in 1893, in modern speech, and changed the readings in scores of passages to state what Jehovah's Witnesses believe and teach. That is a distortion not a translation." (Julius Mantey , Depth Exploration in The New Testament (N.Y.: Vantage Pres, 1980), pp.136-137)

    the translators of the NWT are "diabolical deceivers." (Julius Mantey in discussion with Walter Martin)
     

    Dr. William Barclay, a leading Greek scholar, said "it is abundantly clear that a sect which can translate the New Testament like that is intellectually dishonest."

    Google Bruce Metzer, Marcus Borg, N.T. Wright, Elaine Pagels, Dominic Crossan-they all believe the NWT is a travesty. It is very bad. These people studied Koine Greek and the social/political world for decades. 
     

  5. 23 hours ago, John Houston said:

    It is also strange that this Son, who was sent, had no power but that was given him by his Father. He came to do his Father's will not his own. The parable he spoke of the king who sent his son, after the many slaves were killed, but even this son was also killed was about his situation with his Father. Yes, we know about his name. It has a place, at his Father's right hand, until he is given the time to rule the kingdom with full authority. And after he has finished this Jesus will give all authority back to his Father and regulate himself, humbly again as he prayed to the glory he had before coming to earth. That is what scripture says. Yes Jesus is the theme person in the NT, but Jesus made his Father's name known, not his own. To do what he left for them at Acts 1:8, all what has been said about Jesus had to occurr. We are not brainwashed, but understand scripture! Agape.

    Jesus in His HUMAN form had no power but that which was given to Him by the Father.

  6. THE TRINITY OF THE GODHEAD SEEN IN NATURE.

    Question: How is the Trinity of the Godhead seen in nature as in Romans 1:20 ‘for the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse.

    Answer: a) We see God’s eternal power in earthquakes, volcanoes, wind, millions of stars, galaxies, waves, floods, lightning, sun, moon, nuclear bombs, etc.

    b) We see the Trinity of the Godhead with so many things coming in ‘threes’, reminding us of Father, Son, Holy Spirit, all three members of the creator Godhead. Examples include:

    1) The Physical Universe: Space, mass, time.

    2) Space: 3 dimensions of space are: length, breadth, height.

    3) Mass: 3 phases of matter are: solid, liquid, gas.

    4) Time: 3 tenses of time are: past, present, future.

    5) Light: 3 directions of light wave oscillation are: horizontal, 
    vertical, back and forward.

    6) Colours: 3 primary colours of light are: red, blue, yellow.

    7) Kingdoms: 3 Kingdoms are: Animal, vegetable, mineral.

    8) Animal: 3 main kinds of Animal are: fish, bird, land animals.

    9) Minerals: 3 main kinds of Minerals are: igneous, sedimentary, metamorphic.

    10) Heavens: 3 heavens are: atmosphere, space, God’s throne.

    11) Man: 3 components of Man are: body, soul (personality), spirit. (I Thess. 5:23).

    12) Divine institutions: 3 Divine institutions are: marriage, human government, church.

    13) Musical notes: 3 notes make up a musical chord.

    14) Sub-atomic particles: 3 main sub-atomic particles are: proton, electron, neutron,.

    15) Mankind: 3 divisions of the human race: Jew, Gentile, Church of God. (I Cor.10:32).
     

  7. HOLY SPIRIT: Is He a PERSON or an ACTIVE FORCE? II Cor 3:17

    Watchtower Teaching: The WT claims that the HS is neither a person nor God, but an impersonal ‘active force’ to achieve God’s will, like electricity or radio waves.

    Bible Teaching: The Holy Spirit is fully God and has personality as He can be blasphemed.

    The Holy Spirit has the three attributes of personality, those being: mind, emotions and will.

    An ‘active force’ does not have personal attributes. The WT’s claim of the Holy Spirit being an active force is disproven if the Bible teaches that the Holy Spirit has mind,emotions & will.

    1. The Holy Spirit has a mind.

    (1) ‘He that searcheth the hearts knoweth what is the mind of the Spirit’. (Romans 8:27). The word ‘mind’ means ‘way of thinking’, something which is only true of a person.

    (2) ‘The things of God knoweth no man, but the Spirit of God.’ (I Corinthians 2:11).

    QUESTION: How can the Holy Spirit know the things of God if the Spirit does not have a mind? A force does not know things. To know requires a mind.

    (3) The Spirit searcheth all things’ (I Corinthians 2:10). The Greek word for ‘search’ means to thoroughly investigate a matter, something only a mind can do.

    2) The Holy Spirit has emotions

    (4) The Holy Spirit loves: ‘I beseech you..through the love of the Spirit’.(Rom 15:30 NWT).

    (5) ‘Grieve not the Holy Spirit of God’. (Ephesians 4:30) The Holy Spirit is grieved (made sad) when believers sin. Grief is an emotion that one feels. A force can’t be grieved.

    3) The Holy Spirit has a will. He performs personal acts.

    (6) The Holy Spirit distributes spiritual gifts ‘to every man severally as he will.’(I Cor.12:11) The phrase ‘he wills’ in Greek means ‘a decision of the will after previous deliberation’. The Holy Spirit chooses which gifts each believer receives. A force has no such will,
    nor ability to make decisions.

    (7) The Holy Spirit commands: ‘The Spirit bade me go with them’ (Acts 11:12)

    (8) The Holy Spirit forbids:‘forbidden of the Holy Ghost to preach the word in Asia’.Acts 16:6

    (9) The Holy Spirit speaks: ‘The Spirit said to Philip, Go near.’ (Acts 8:29)

    ‘The Holy Ghost said, separate me Barnabus and Saul’. (Acts 13:2)

    ‘The Spirit speaketh expressly’. (I Timothy 4:1).

    QUESTION: How do you explain the WT view of the Holy Spirit being an impersonal force, with the Bible’s teaching that the Holy Spirit has a mind that can know, emotions that can feel love and grief, and a will to make decisions?

    (10) The Holy Spirit testifies: ‘He shall testify of me’. (John 15:26).
    The same Greek word for testify (or bear witness) used here, is also used of:

    a) The disciples testifying about Christ in John 15:27.
    b) John the Baptist bearing witness to the truth in John 5:33.
    c) God the Father bore witness to Cornelius’ (and Gentiles’) conversion by giving them the Holy Spirit. (Acts 15:8)

    Just as the disciples, John and God the Father (who are all persons) testified or bore witness, so the Holy Spirit bears witness about Christ. A force cannot bear witness, only a person can. (The Holy Spirit bears witness in heaven and on earth - I John 5:7,8)

    (11) The Holy Spirit intercedes or prays for believers.‘The Spirit itself makes intercession for us with groanings’. (Romans 8:26). 

    Just as Jesus Christ (a person) intercedes for believers (Romans 8:34; Hebrews 7:25), so the Holy Spirit (as a person) intercedes
    (same Greek word) for believers. A force cannot pray for another; only a person can pray.

    (12) The Holy Spirit teaches believers. (‘he shall teach you all things’. John 14:26)

    (13) The Holy Spirit hears. ‘Whatsoever he shall hear, that shall he speak.’ (John 16:13)

    (14) The Holy Spirit shows us things. ‘he....shall show it unto you’. (John 16:15)

    (15) The Holy Spirit restrains sin. ‘My Spirit shall not always strive with man’(Genesis 6:3)

    (16) The Holy Spirit can be blasphemed.‘he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost’.Mk3:29

    People cannot be blasphemed. We can only be slandered. Only God can be blasphemed.

    By Jesus Christ and the Holy Spirit being blasphemed means we’ve proved the Trinity.

    (a) God the Father can be blasphemed. (Revelation 13:6; 16:9)
    (b) God the Son can be blasphemed. (Luke 22:65)
    ‘And many other things blasphemously they spake against him’.
    (c) God the Holy Spirit can be blasphemed. (Matthew 12:31)
    ‘Blasphemy against the Holy Spirit shall not be forgiven unto men.’

    (17) The Holy Spirit can be lied to (Acts 5:3). Ananias and Sapphira lied to the Holy Spirit.
    QUESTION: Have you ever lied to electricity and asked electricity to forgive you?

    (18) The Holy Spirit cries in our hearts, Abba, Father. (Galatians 4:6)

    (19) The Holy Spirit approves some decisions:
    ‘It seemed good to the Holy Ghost and to us’. (Acts 15:28)

    (20) The Holy Spirit invites people to be saved:‘The Spirit & the bride say Come’Rev 22:17

    (21) The Holy Spirit fills us (Ephesians 5:18) just as God may fill us (Ephesians 3:19).

    (22) The Holy Spirit uses personal pronouns to describe Himself: John 15:26; 16:13;(he):

    ‘The Holy Spirit said, Separate me Barnabus. . .’ (Acts 13:2).

    The Holy Spirit considers Himself a person, not a personification.

    Watchtower Objection:
    The main reason the JWs say that the Holy Spirit is an ‘active force’ is because the Greek word for ‘spirit’ (pneuma) is neuter.

    Answer: This is faulty reasoning, because 1)the gender of a word relates to the grammatical form of the word, not to its sex or physical gender. Because a word is grammatically neuter does not mean that the object is an ‘it’ or of neuter sex.
    (Source: Elements of NT Greek, J W Wenham, 1979, p.8).

    For example, in Greek, ‘children’ is a neuter word, ‘desert’ is a feminine word, etc.and

    2) In John 15:26 and 16:13, the neuter noun ‘pneuma’ is referred to by the masculine pronoun ‘ekeinos’ (1565=that one, masculine) recognising the Holy Spirit’s masculine personality. ‘He (ekeinos) shall testify of me’ (15:26); ‘when he (ekeinos), the Spirit of
    truth shall come’ (16:13). Note: ‘ekeine’ is feminine ‘that one’, and ‘ekeino’ is neuter).

    (23) The Holy Spirit comforts (Gk: parakletos) believers. John 14:16, 26; 15:26; 16:7. This same Greek word ‘parakletos’ (3875) is used of Christ who has personality in John 14:16 and I John 2:1. ‘Another Comforter’ (Gk: allos parakletos, John 14:16) means
    ‘another of the same kind’ as Christ, in contrast to ‘heteros’ (2087) meaning ‘another of a different kind’. As Christ has Deity and Personality, so does the Holy Spirit. To comfort requires empathy, understanding, love, compassion and concern for another’s
    well-being, all being attributes of personality.

    Conclusion: Hence,the Holy Spirit is a person because 1) He has mind, emotions,& will. 2) Personal pronouns are used of Him. 3) He performs personal acts.4) He associates with the Father and Son in the Baptism formula, Apostolic benediction and as Church
    Administrator (I Cor. 12:4-6). 5) He can be personally mistreated (tempted, lied to, grieved, resisted, insulted and blasphemed). The New Testament clearly shows the Holy Spirit to have a personality and to be God. (‘Jehovah is the Spirit’ II Cor. 3:17 NWT).
     

  8. On 6/6/2016 at 1:21 PM, Witness said:

    The Father’s name is lifted up through Jesus’ own name, which we know as “YHWH is Salvation”.

     

    “I will remain in the world no longer, but they are still in the world, and I am coming to you. Holy Father, protect them by the power of your name, the name you gave me, so that they may be one as we are one.”  John 17:11

     

     

     

     

    Terrible translation.

     

    And now I am no more in the world, but these are in the world, and I come to thee. Holy Father, keep through thine own name those whom thou hast.

  9. On 5/28/2016 at 8:34 PM, Manuel Boyet Enicola said:

    The word translated "worship" is προσκυνέω (proskyneo) in Greek.  So what is the meaning of προσκυνέω? 

    According to a Greek lexicon, this could mean:

    1. to kiss the hand to (towards) one, in token of reverence
    2. among the Orientals, esp. the Persians, to fall upon the knees and touch the ground with the forehead as an expression of profound reverence
    3. in the NT by kneeling or prostration to do homage (to one) or make obeisance, whether in order to express respect or to make supplication
    The NWT is therefore correct in translating the term as "obeisance."
    Interestingly, the Catholic Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition (DRA) uses "adore" and Young's Literal Translation (YLT) uses "bow".  Note that the word (προσκυνέω) is translated differently in the bible for each occurrence.

    No, the word is  proskynēsatōsan

  10. 43 minutes ago, Shiwiii said:

    If you read further to verse 32, who does Jesus draw people to? 

    Himself.

    Good point.

     

    As always, the average brainwashed Jehovahs Witness is not programmed to THINK, but simply regurgitate the lies they have been told by the watchtower.

     

    Notice He/She totally FAILED to address ANY point i quoted?


    1983 "Avoid independent thinking...questioning the counsel that is provided by God's visible organization." (Watchtower, Jan. 15, 1983 pg. 22)

    1983 "Fight against independent thinking." (Watchtower, Jan. 15, 1983 pg. 27 )
     

  11. The New Testament always lifts up Jesus Christ’s name, not Jehovah’s name. Why?


    Because Jesus Christ is Jehovah God on earth. Christ is 100% God and 100% man.


    Q1: In whose name should we meet together?


    ‘Where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them.’ (Matthew 18:20)

    Q2: Demons were cast out by the authority of whose name?

    ‘Paul.....said to the spirit, I command thee in the name of Jesus Christ to come out of her.’ (Acts 16:18)


    Q3: In whose name should we preach repentance and forgiveness of sins?


    ‘And that repentance and remission of sins should be preached in his name among all nations. And ye are witnesses of these things.’ (Luke 24:47,48)

    Q4: In whose name are we to believe and receive forgiveness of sins?


    ‘....through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins.’ (Acts 10:43, John 1:12)

    Q5: By whose name, and no other, do we obtain salvation? Acts 4:10,12 says:

    ‘by the name of Jesus Christ ... Neither is there salvation in any other, for there is none other name under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved.’

    Q6: In whose name should we pray? John 16:23,24; 14:13,14; 15:16 says:

    ‘Whatsoever ye shall ask the Father in my name, he will give it you.’

    Q7: In whose name is the Holy Spirit sent?


    ‘But the Comforter, which is the Holy Ghost, whom the Father will send in my name......’ (John 14:26)

    Q8: In whose name and authority did the disciples heal the sick?

    ‘His name through faith in his name hath made this man strong’ (Acts 3:16; 4:30)

    Q9: Whose name did Paul say that we are to call upon?

    ‘ all that in every place call upon the name of Jesus Christ our Lord.’ (I Cor 1:2)

    Q10: Whose name is above every name?

    ‘God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name .... that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord.’(Phil 2:9-11)


    Paul’s quote about Christ is from Isaiah 45:22-24 where every knee will bow to Jehovah. What is true about Jehovah, is also true of Christ, the Lord of all mankind


    Q11: According to Acts 1:8, of whom are we to be witnesses?

    ‘Ye shall be witnesses unto me (Jesus)’

    Q12: In whose name were believers baptized?

    ‘they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus’. (Acts 8:16; 2:38)

    Q13: In whose name were believers designated?

    ‘the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch’. (Acts 11:26)

    Q14: In whose name did the apostles speak?

    ‘Commanded them not to speak at all nor teach in the name of Jesus’ Acts 4:17,18

    Q15: In whose name did early Christians suffer? Acts 15:26 says:

    ‘Men that have hazarded their lives for the name of our Lord Jesus Christ.’ ‘rejoicing that they were counted worthy to suffer shame for his name’Acts 5:41;9:16

    Q16: Whose name was Paul to carry?


    ‘Lord said: He is a chosen vessel unto me, to bear my name before the Gentiles, kings, and the children of Israel.’ (Acts 9:15)


    Q17: In whose name did Paul deliver a man to Satan?

    ‘In the name of our Lord Jesus Christ...to deliver such an one to Satan.’ I Cor 5:4,5

    Q18: In whose name did the apostles teach? Acts 5:28; 8:12 says:


    ‘Did we not straitly command you that ye should not teach in this name?’

  12. John 1:1 Is Jesus Christ ‘a god’ or ‘God’?

    Watchtower Teaching: The NWT translates the first ‘θεος’ in John 1:1 as ‘God’, and the second ‘θεος’ as ‘a god’. In the Greek, there is a definite article ‘the’ (‘ό ’) before the first occurrence of God (ό θεος = the God). However, there is no definite article ‘the’ before the
    second occurrence of ‘God’.

    The Watchtower argues (falsely) that, when a noun has a definite article (like ‘ό θεος’), it points to an identity or personality, such as the person of Jehovah God. The WT claims (falsely) that the same phrase (‘ό θεος’) is never used of Jesus Christ in the NT (Watchtower, 1 July 86, p31).

    (Note: ‘ό θεος’ is used of Christ in Matthew 1:23, John 20:28 and Hebrews 1:8).

    The Watchtower claims (falsely) that when a singular predicate noun has no definite article, and it occurs before a verb (as theos in John 1:1c), then it points to a quality about someone, so that here it says that Jesus (the Word) has a divine quality, but is not God Almighty (KIT, p.1139).

    They alone translate Jesus as ‘a god’.

    To support this view they quote:

    i) Johannes Greber NT (1937), a SPIRITIST who claimed that spirits helped him translate the NT (Watchtower, 15 September 62, p.554; 15 October 73, p.640). The WT KNEW he was a spiritist in 1956 (Watchtower, 15 February 1956, p 110, 111), yet they still quoted him.

    ii) Dr Julius Mantey, who REFUTES their translation saying: ‘They have forgotten entirely what the (word) order of the sentence indicates that the “ λογος” (“logos” or “Word” in English) has the same substance, nature or essence as the Father. To indicate that Jesus
    was “a god” would need a completely different construction in the Greek. They misquoted me in support of their translation. 99% of Greek scholars and Bible translators in the world DISAGREE with JWs.’

    Bible Teaching: The NWT is wrong in translating John 1:1 as ‘a god’ for these reasons:

    1. JWs claim that, because the second ‘θεος’ (theos) has no definite article, we should translate it as ‘a god’. (Kingdom Interlinear Translation, p 1139). Then why has the NWT JW version broken their rule four times in John 1:6, 12, 13, 18 by translating ‘θεος’ with no
    article as ‘God’? They are inconsistent, as seen below:

    Verse 1:
    Verse 6:
    Verse 12:
    Verse 13:
    Verse 18:

    If the NWT was consistent, they should translate ‘θεος’ as ‘a god’ in these cases too:

    v. 6 ‘There was a man sent from a god.’
    v.12 ‘to them gave he power to become the children of a god.’
    v.13 ‘nor of the will of man, but of a god.’
    v.18 ‘no man hath seen a god at any time.’

    This is clearly wrong and ridiculous. Why only in verse one do they refuse to translate ‘θεος’ as ‘God’? Because they don’t want Christ to be Jehovah God. The Watchtower’s mistranslation of John 1:1 is not supported by any Greek grammar textbook.

    Many other verses have ‘θεος’ + no article, and yet are correctly translated as ‘God’, such as Matthew 5:9; 6:24; Luke 1:35, 78; 2:40; John 3:2, 21; 9:16, 33; I Corinthians 1:30; 15:10; Philippians 2:11,13; Titus 1:1; Romans 1:17, 18.

    2. JWs say that by translating ‘θεος’ as ‘a god’, then Christ is a lesser god, a divine person.

    Answer: If John had intended this adjectival sense (ie ‘the Word was divine’), he had an adjective θειος (theios=godlike2304) available to use as found in II Peter 1:3, 4 (‘divine power’ and ‘divine nature’), if Christ was just a divine lesser god.

    Instead, John uses ‘θεος’ meaning ‘God’.

    Spiros Zodhiates, in his book Was Christ God? ( p.102), states assertively: ‘It would, therefore, be totally wrong to translate the statement that John makes in John 1:1 as “the Word was divine”. The word which is used in the original Greek is θεος (theos) “God”, not θειος (theios) “divine”. Jesus Christ did not merely have divine
    attributes, but He was God in His essence and nature. He was not a man who attained divinity, but God who humbled Himself to take upon Himself human nature in addition to His deity.’

    3. Contrary to the Watchtower claim, ‘θεος’ (God) with the definite article (‘ό’) is used of Jesus Christ in the New Testament:

    i) John 20:28.
    ii) Matthew 1:23.
    iii) Hebrews 1:8.

    Hence, the same word ‘ό θεος’ (ho theos) used of the Father is also used of Christ.

    4. JWs say that Jesus is ‘a god’. Jehovah disagrees with them in Isaiah 44:8 by saying: ‘Is there a God beside me? yea, there is no God; I know not any.’ (KJV and NWT).

    Jehovah says that there is no ‘a God’ beside Him. This shows John 1:1 in the NWT to be wrong. Hence, Jesus cannot be ‘a God’, so He must be ‘the God’.

    5. Ancient UNCIAL Greek manuscripts were all written in capital letters, so one could not distinguish between ‘God’ and ‘god’, except by the context, and whether the writer believed in one true God or in more than one god.

    Ask: Did the Apostle John believe in one true God or more than one true God? Since John believed in one true God, we conclude that Jesus is the one true God in John 1:1.

    6. JWs say that Jesus is ‘a god’ with Jehovah, as seen from ‘the Word was with God.’ They say that if Christ is ‘with’ God, He cannot be God.

    Answer: ‘with’ (Greek ‘ προς’) means that Christ was so intimately connected with God, that He is God. ‘There are no gods together with me’. (Deuteronomy 32:39 NWT)

    ‘There is no god with me.’ (Deuteronomy 32:39 KJV)

    Hence, Jehovah says that there are no gods with Jehovah, so Christ must be Jehovah God.

    7. Every Greek scholar in the world is against the NWT translation of John 1:1 ‘the word was a god’. Examples include:

    M.R.Vincent: ‘The λογος (logos) of John is the real personal God’.(Word Studies in Gk N,T ,p.383)

    K.Wuest: ‘The Word was as to His essence absolute deity’.(Word Studies in Gk.NT p 209)

    A.T.Robertson: ‘the Word was God, of Divine nature; not “a god”.’(Expositors Gk Testmnt, p.684)

    Spiros Zodhiates: ‘In John 1:1, Jesus Christ in His pre-incarnate state is called the Word, presenting as the second person of the Godhead.’ (NT Word Study Dictionary, p 935)

    W.E.Vine: ‘the λογος (logos), the Word, the personal manifestation, not of a part of the divine nature, but of the whole deity.’ (Complete Expository Dictionary of NT Words, p683)

    8. All other gods are false gods.

    Hence, Jesus Christ in John 1:1 must be either the only true God Jehovah or a false god. Which one?

    9. Church Writers writing before 325 AD all agree that John 1:1 is ‘the Word was God’, and that it means that Jesus is fully God and man.

    This verse was never disputed before the occultist Greber’s NT was published in 1937.

    Notice 12 Church writers before 325 AD who all quote John 1:1 correctly as ‘the Word was God’. 

    Question: Why do NONE of them quote it as ‘a god’?

    • These early Church writers knew Greek as their mother tongue and first language,
    • These men often were quoting from the original autographs.
    1) Irenaeus, (120-202 AD) Vol 1, p 328,Vol 1, p 428,Vol 1, p 546
    2) Theophilus of Antioch (115-181 AD)Vol 2, p 103,
    3) Clement of Alexandria (153-217 AD) Vol 2, p 173,
    4) Tertullian (145-220 AD), Vol 3 p 488, p 489, p 602, p 607
    5) Origen (185-254 AD), Vol.4 p 262, Origen de Principiis p 291, 
    p 553 Origen against Celsus p 603, p 642,
    6) Cyprian (200-258 AD), Vol 5 p 516, p 518
    7) Novatian (210-280 AD), Vol 5, p 624,p 624, p 642
    8) Hippolytus (170-236 AD), Vol 5, p.288.
    9) Thaumaturgus (205 AD), Vol 6,p.69
    10) Methodius (260-312 AD), Vol 6,p.381.
    11) Alexander (273-326 AD),Vol 6,p.292
    12) Tatian’s Diatessaron (150 AD), Vol 10, p 43

    Note: Compare these quotes by Ante-Nicene Church fathers which contradict the Watchtower’s invented quotes of Church fathers on p7 of ‘Should you believe in the Trinity?’

    10. TheWatchtower’s Kingdom Interlinear Translation (KIT, p.401) quote of John 1:1, in the left hand column has ‘god was the Word’, which CONTRADICTS the right hand column NWT translation which says ‘the word was a god’. Hence the Word (Christ who became flesh, v.14) is called ‘God’ on the LHS of the page, and ‘a god’ on the RHS of the page.

    11. Greek grammar rules out ‘a god’.

    JWs say that for Jesus to be Jehovah God here, there should be the definite article ‘the’ (Greek ‘ό’) before God (θεος). Because ‘θεος’ does not have the definite article ‘ό’ before it, JWs conclude that ‘the word’ was indefinite, and means ‘a god’.

    Answer: A.T. Robertson Greek authority says (A Grammar of Greek NT, p.767): ‘Nouns in the Predicate: The article is not essential to speech....The word with the article (“ό”) is then the subject of the sentence, whatever the word order may be. So in John 1:1, “
    ό λογος” , the subject is perfectly clear (“the word” = “ό λογος”, and it can only be “the word was God”.’

    Key: Hence the article ‘the’ (ό) points out the subject (ό λογος) of the clause, and points out the predicate (θεος ) without the article.
    If John had written ‘ό θεος ην ό λογος’ as the JWs would want, then John would be teaching false doctrine of Sabellianism (that Christ is all of God, that God and Christ are interchangeable, that the Father was the one who became incarnate, suffered and died).

    Note: If the article is used with both the subject (ie. λογος ) and the predicate (ie. θεος), they would then be interchangeable as the subject nouns are in I John 3:4 (η αµαρτια εστιν η ανοµια) then both ‘sin is transgression’ and ‘transgression is sin’ are true’.

    But in I John 4:16, ‘ ’ can only be ‘God is Love’, not ‘Love is God’ (because the article points out the subject). If the Greek language allowed us to say ‘Love is God’ just as readily as ‘God is Love’ in this verse, then God would not be a person, but just an abstract quality.
    (see Was Christ God?, Spiros Zodhiates, p.98).

    Conclusion: Hence, the absence of the definite artice ‘?’ in John 1:1 is deliberate in order to identify ‘the Word’ as the subject of the sentence and to make it only to read as ‘the Word was God’. It has nothing to do with Christ being a lesser god as the JWs claim. Hence,
    contrary to the NWT and The Emphatic Diaglott, the Greek grammatical construction leaves no doubt whatsoever that ‘the Word was God’ is the only possible rendering of the text.
     

  13. 1 hour ago, JaniceM said:

    Hi Defender,

    What they may be referring to are later translations of the KJB like the NKJV and others:

    New King James Version - Psalm 83:18  That they may know that You, whose name alone is the Lord,
    Are the Most High over all the earth.

    King James 2000 Bible - Psalms 83:18 - That men may know that you, whose name alone is the LORD, are the most high over all the earth.

     

    However, some older translations still contain the name in a few verses:

    King James Bible  - Psalm 83:18 That men may know that thou, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, art the most high over all the earth.

    American King James Version - Psalm 83:18 That men may know that you, whose name alone is JEHOVAH, are the most high over all the earth.

    Well, i dont think they said which, they implied ALL Bibles are guilty of it.

     

  14. 13 hours ago, JaniceM said:

    Below are some references online to the divine name in other Bibles or some older manuscripts or fragments:

    1.   http://www.eliyah.com/yhwhdss.html  - "Yahweh's name is found in the Dead Sea Scrolls over 2200 times."

     

    2.  (Removal of God's name replaced with LORD) 

      KJV - Psalm 83:18  That men may know that thou, whose name alone is Jehovah, art the most high over all the earth.

      NKJV - Psalm 83:18  That they may know that You, whose name alone is the Lord,
    Are the Most High over all the earth. 

     

     

    3.  https://fromthesunrising.wordpress.com/2010/09/26/the-divine-namespoken-by-jesus-and-early-christians/

    " However, there were evidences found out from some fragments of original Septuagint which have excavated as it was from the Old Testament written in Greek. One of these fragments was found by researchers and gave them a dating from 50 B.C. to 50 C.E. Below are pictures of those fragments which contain tetragrammaton and had taken from Wikipedia’s site.  You can see the picture from this link site: http://www.eliyah.com/lxx.html"  ". . . Thus he denied the evidence of Origen that in the more accurate manuscripts the Divine Name was written in ancient (palaeo-Hebrew) script and the later testimony of Jerome to the same effect. As Waddell pointed out, Baudissin’s summary statement is “flatly disproved” by the Fouad Papyrus, and now a Qumran fragment of Leviticus ii-iv, written in a hand closely akin to Fouad 266, has been found to render the Tetragrammaton by IAW. Kahle is also of the opinion, and claims the concurrence of C.H. Roberts, that in the Rylands Papyrus Greek 458, at Deuteronomy xxvi.17 where the text breaks off just before the appearance of the Divine Name, the original bore not Kyrios as Roberts originally supposed, but the unabridged Tetragrammaton. It would seem therefore that the evidence most recently to hand is tending to confirm the testimony of Origen and Jerome, and that Kahle is right in holding that LXX texts, written by Jews for Jews, retained the Divine Name in Hebrew Letters (palaeo-Hebrew or Aramaic) or in the Greek imitative form PIPI, and that its replacement by Kyrios was a Christian innovation.[22]"

    "The fact is, according also to some Talmud that have found, there are rabbis who killed people with scrolls having tetragrammaton and who did not refrain from pronouncing the divine name. The underlying fact is that they gathered most of the scrolls with tetragrammaton and burned them all and have made new copies of scrolls of the Old Testament with Kurios/Kyrios. And consequently have scrupulously translated new manuscripts of the New Testament with Kyrios as a substitute for tetragrammaton and then buried their revised scrolls."

    We are talking about the KJV, not the NKJV.

     

    Show me PROOF that Gods name was REMOVED from the KJV.

     

    Show me WHEN it was removed, WHO removed it and the ORIGINAL that shows it in there.

  15. 13 hours ago, JaniceM said:

    Below are some references online to the divine name in other Bibles or some older manuscripts or fragments:

    1.   http://www.eliyah.com/yhwhdss.html  - "Yahweh's name is found in the Dead Sea Scrolls over 2200 times."

     

    2.  (Removal of God's name replaced with LORD) 

      KJV - Psalm 83:18  That men may know that thou, whose name alone is Jehovah, art the most high over all the earth.

      NKJV - Psalm 83:18  That they may know that You, whose name alone is the Lord,
    Are the Most High over all the earth. 

     

     

    3.  https://fromthesunrising.wordpress.com/2010/09/26/the-divine-namespoken-by-jesus-and-early-christians/

    " However, there were evidences found out from some fragments of original Septuagint which have excavated as it was from the Old Testament written in Greek. One of these fragments was found by researchers and gave them a dating from 50 B.C. to 50 C.E. Below are pictures of those fragments which contain tetragrammaton and had taken from Wikipedia’s site.  You can see the picture from this link site: http://www.eliyah.com/lxx.html"  ". . . Thus he denied the evidence of Origen that in the more accurate manuscripts the Divine Name was written in ancient (palaeo-Hebrew) script and the later testimony of Jerome to the same effect. As Waddell pointed out, Baudissin’s summary statement is “flatly disproved” by the Fouad Papyrus, and now a Qumran fragment of Leviticus ii-iv, written in a hand closely akin to Fouad 266, has been found to render the Tetragrammaton by IAW. Kahle is also of the opinion, and claims the concurrence of C.H. Roberts, that in the Rylands Papyrus Greek 458, at Deuteronomy xxvi.17 where the text breaks off just before the appearance of the Divine Name, the original bore not Kyrios as Roberts originally supposed, but the unabridged Tetragrammaton. It would seem therefore that the evidence most recently to hand is tending to confirm the testimony of Origen and Jerome, and that Kahle is right in holding that LXX texts, written by Jews for Jews, retained the Divine Name in Hebrew Letters (palaeo-Hebrew or Aramaic) or in the Greek imitative form PIPI, and that its replacement by Kyrios was a Christian innovation.[22]"

    "The fact is, according also to some Talmud that have found, there are rabbis who killed people with scrolls having tetragrammaton and who did not refrain from pronouncing the divine name. The underlying fact is that they gathered most of the scrolls with tetragrammaton and burned them all and have made new copies of scrolls of the Old Testament with Kurios/Kyrios. And consequently have scrupulously translated new manuscripts of the New Testament with Kyrios as a substitute for tetragrammaton and then buried their revised scrolls."

    But you JWS say that it was removed from the KJV.

  16. On 5/24/2016 at 8:07 AM, Shiwiii said:

    good questions. I have one to add:

    If God's name was removed and MAN had to put it back in, then this is saying that God cannot preserve His own word without the help of MAN. So is this what JW's actually believe, that God is powerless to preserve His own word without the help of men?

    The point is, Jehovahs Witnesses cannot PROVE that Gods' name was removed.

  17. THE TRINITY OF THE GODHEAD SEEN IN NATURE.

    Question: How is the Trinity of the Godhead seen in nature as in Romans 1:20 ‘for the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse.

    Answer: a) We see God’s eternal power in earthquakes, volcanoes, wind, millions of stars, galaxies, waves, floods, lightning, sun, moon, nuclear bombs, etc.

    b) We see the Trinity of the Godhead with so many things coming in ‘threes’, reminding us of Father, Son, Holy Spirit, all three members of the creator Godhead. Examples include:

    1) The Physical Universe: Space, mass, time.

    2) Space: 3 dimensions of space are: length, breadth, height.

    3) Mass: 3 phases of matter are: solid, liquid, gas.

    4) Time: 3 tenses of time are: past, present, future.

    5) Light: 3 directions of light wave oscillation are: horizontal, 
    vertical, back and forward.

    6) Colours: 3 primary colours of light are: red, blue, yellow.

    7) Kingdoms: 3 Kingdoms are: Animal, vegetable, mineral.

    8) Animal: 3 main kinds of Animal are: fish, bird, land animals.

    9) Minerals: 3 main kinds of Minerals are: igneous, sedimentary, metamorphic.

    10) Heavens: 3 heavens are: atmosphere, space, God’s throne.

    11) Man: 3 components of Man are: body, soul (personality), spirit. (I Thess. 5:23).

    12) Divine institutions: 3 Divine institutions are: marriage, human government, church.

    13) Musical notes: 3 notes make up a musical chord.

    14) Sub-atomic particles: 3 main sub-atomic particles are: proton, electron, neutron,.

    15) Mankind: 3 divisions of the human race: Jew, Gentile, Church of God. (I Cor.10:32).
     

  18. Will the men of Sodom be resurrected?


    Yes....Watchtower 7/1879 page 8
    No.....Watchtower 6/1/52 page 338
    Yes....Watchtower 8/1/65, page 479
    No.....Watchtower 6/1/88, page 31
    Yes...Live Forever (old Ed.) page 179
    No....Live Forever (new Ed.) page 179
    Yes...Insight, vol. 2., page 985
    No...Revelation book, page 273.


    These changes are more like flashing lights, on and off again. How can they be trusted?
     

  19. 20 hours ago, Manuel Boyet Enicola said:

    I do not know if the English you use is the same English I understand, but the quote simply said that it was a logical conclusion as to when the heavenly calling ended.  The Bible was never quoted as the "source" of the year 1935. It was simply "arrived at", in the same way Moses "supposed" (assumed, NLV) it was time for him to liberate Israel but was 40 years early in time.....

    First off, WHY are you using a Bible translation that you do not believe in or use?

     

    Key words in your prophecy is " and the evidence"

     

    Where was this evidence?

  20. 19 hours ago, Manuel Boyet Enicola said:

    What Really Is a Prophet According to the Bible?

    - When Ezekiel in a vision was told to “prophesy to the wind,” he simply expressed God’s command to the wind. (Eze 37:9, 10)

    - When individuals at Jesus’ trial covered him, slapped him, and then said, “Prophesy to us, you Christ. Who is it that struck you?” they were not calling for prediction but for Jesus to identify the slappers by divine revelation. (Mt 26:67, 68; Lu 22:63, 64)

    - The Samaritan woman at the well recognized Jesus as “a prophet” because he revealed things about her past that he could not have known except by divine power. (Joh 4:17-19; compare Lu 7:39.)

    So, too, such Scriptural portions as Jesus’ Sermon on the Mount and his denunciation of the scribes and Pharisees (Mt 23:1-36) may properly be defined as prophecy, for these were an inspired ‘telling forth’ of God’s mind on matters, even as were the pronouncements by Isaiah, Jeremiah, and other earlier prophets.—Compare Isa 65:13-16 and Lu 6:20-25.

    So while prediction, or foretelling, is not the basic thought conveyed by the root verbs in the original languages (Heb., na·vaʼʹ; Gr., pro·phe·teuʹo); yet it forms an outstanding feature of Bible prophecy.

    What then can we conclude: is The Watchtower Society a "prophet"?

    When it comes to "revealing God's will", the answer is YES; but when it comes to "prediction" the answer is NO.

    You are using a different word.

     

    a PROPHET and a PROPHECY are two different things.

     

    a Prophet can either 1) speak for God ( for want of a better phrase ) or 2) Predict an upcoming event like YOU guys did in 1914, 1918, 1923, 1925, 1875, etc.

     

    to "prophesy" does not mean the person is a "prophet" as such.

     

    In 1889, the WT said " we present PROOFS that the setting up of the kingdon of God has already begun...and that 'the battle of the great day of God almighty' (Revelation16:14),which will end in AD1914 with the complete overthrow of the earth's present rulership, is already commenced.". So, the WT presented "proofs". These "proofs" were wrong, so what credibility do they have to "proclaim" anything?
     

  21. 22 hours ago, Manuel Boyet Enicola said:

    I think there's something wrong about the question in the first place. 

    JWs never said that the year 1935 was pointed out in the bible.  Got any proof to that?  

    I sure do have proof. i think it is VERY important to be able to back up what you say.

     

    "Logically, the calling of the little flock would draw to a close when the number was nearing completion, and the evidence is that the general gathering of these specially blessed ones ended in 1935."Watchtower 1995 Feb 15 p.19

  22. 1888 "In this chapter we present the Bible evidence proving that the full end of the times of the gentiles, i.e., the full end of their lease of dominion, will be reached in A.D. 1914; and that the date will be the farthest limit of the rule of imperfect men. And be it observed, that if this is shown to be a fact firmly established by the Scriptures, it will prove; Firstly, that at that date the Kingdom of God, for which our Lord taught us to pray, saying, Thy Kingdom come, will obtain full, universal control, and that it will then be set up, or firmly established, in the earth, on the ruins of present institutions." (The Time Is At Hand, 1888, p. 76, 77)
     

    1968 "'Adam Created At Close Of 'Sixth Day' Are we to assume from this study that the battle of Armageddon will be all over by the autumn of 1975, and the long-looked-for thousand-year reign of Christ will begin by then? Possibly, but we wait to see how closely the seventh thousand-year period of man's existence coincides with the Sabbath-like thousand-year reign of Christ....It may involve only a difference of weeks or months, not years.' (Watchtower, Aug. 15, 1968, p. 499)
     

     

  23. 1888 "In this chapter we present the Bible evidence proving that the full end of the times of the gentiles, i.e., the full end of their lease of dominion, will be reached in A.D. 1914; and that the date will be the farthest limit of the rule of imperfect men. And be it observed, that if this is shown to be a fact firmly established by the Scriptures, it will prove; Firstly, that at that date the Kingdom of God, for which our Lord taught us to pray, saying, Thy Kingdom come, will obtain full, universal control, and that it will then be set up, or firmly established, in the earth, on the ruins of present institutions." (The Time Is At Hand, 1888, p. 76, 77)
     

     

    1889 "Be not surprised, then, when in subsequent chapters we present proofs that the setting up of the Kingdom of God is already begun, that it is pointed out in prophecy as due to begin the exercise of power in A.D. 1878, and that the 'battle of the great day of God Almighty (Rev. 16:14) which will end in A.D. 1914 with the complete overthrow of earth's present rulership, is already commenced. The gathering of the armies is plainly visible from the standpoint of God's word." (Studies in the Scriptures, Vol. 2, The Time Is At Hand, 1889 Ed., p. 101. The 1915 Edition of this texts changed "A.D. 1914" to read 'A.D. 1915')
     

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