Did Jewish Scribes Remove the Name of God from the Greek New Testament Manuscripts?

[JW Insider]

On 8/1/2016 at 3:21 PM, HollyW said:

Regarding the J docs of Category #4, the NWT translation committee appears to have not followed them exactly because there are a number of instances in them when "Jehovah" is used but the NWT does not.  1 Cor. 12:3 and 2 Timothy 1:18 are some examples of this.

There is a lot of readily available research on this topic already online. As I began to join in, I also realized that I might be repeating information that has already come up in other questions and topics on this forum.

I'll start with the J docs that I arbitrarily assigned to Category #4. ,

The J Docs initially referred to about 19 different Hebrew translations (from Greek to "modern" Hebrew) numbered J¹, J², J³, etc, up to J¹⁹. A few more have now been added to the 1985 Reference NWT, but these include even more modern non-Hebrew translations that use a form of "Jehovah" in the NT.

From the standpoint of how the Greek Scriptures (NT) should be translated into English (or any other language) the "J Docs" are meaningless. I think that several of us have misinterpreted their importance. These have nothing to do with what the ancient Greek texts said or meant. They are not old texts from the viewpoint of the Scriptures. They are "modern" texts. (J² is the oldest from about 100 years before Columbus and the next oldest J⁷ is from about 100 years after Columbus. The rest are mostly from the 1800s through the late 1900's).

They are modern Hebrew translations of the New Testament. They were sometimes simply the work of biased Trinitarian missionaries who wanted to create a Christian ministry to Jewish speakers of Hebrew. They added the divine name in the places in the NT where they thought these verses should show a direct connection between the God/Lord of the OT and the God/Lord of the NT. They referred to God as YHWH even in cases where the NT was not quoting the OT. The problem is that the Trinitarian bias allowed these "translators" to pick several cases where even Jesus as Lord is directly connected to Jehovah as Lord.

Note this information about J¹⁸.  The 1969 edition of the Kingdom Interlinear Translation says:

J¹⁸ Greek Scriptures in Hebrew. In London, England, in 1885, a new Hebrew translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures was published. This new translation was commenced by Isaac Salkinson and completed after his death by Christian David Ginsburg. Our oldest copy is of the third edition published in 1891. This has been compared with the small edition published by the Trinitarian Bible Society, London, England, in 1939, and also with the Hebrew-English New Testament published in 1941 by the same Society (page 29).

Our old NWT Bibles (1950, 1951, 1963) used to include a statement about them altogether like this:

All together, the appearances of the sacred Tetragrammaton in the 19 Hebrew versions to which we have had access total up to 307 distinct occurrences."

But we didn't count all of the "distinct occurrences." There are over 100 additional distinct occurrences that we didn't count because we couldn't use them. Just a few examples will show why. This has already been started on other sites that I copy from below. They include HollyW's examples:

1 Corinth. 12:3 in J¹⁴

"...no one can say "Jesus is Lord (יהוה), except by the Holy Spirit."

1 Thess. 4:16,17 in J^7,8,13,14,24

"For the Lord (יהוה) himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord (יהוה) in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord (יהוה)."

2 Timothy 1:18 in J^{7,8,13,14,16,17,18,22,23,24}

"The Lord (יהוה) grant unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord (יהוה) in that day..."

Hebrews 1:10 in J⁸ in which Jehovah addresses the Son using the Divine Name.

"Thou, Lord (יהוה), in the beginning didst lay the foundation of the earth and the heavens are the works of thy hands."

1 Peter 2:3 in J¹³, J¹⁴

"If you have tasted the kindness of the Lord (יהוה)"

1 Peter 3:15 in J⁷

"but sanctify Christ as Lord (יהוה) in your hearts..."

J⁷ and J⁸ also adds "ha Mashiach" (the Messiah) or (the Christ) making this read: "Jehovah God, who is Christ." The 1985 KIT mentions the "J" versions in a footnote, but not that both J⁷ and J⁸ read "Sanctify Jehovah God (who is Christ) in your hearts." This is a quotation from Isaiah 8:12,13. Both the LXX and KIT Greek are nearly identical.

J²⁰ (Concordance to the Greek Testament) cites יהוה at both 1 Peter 2:3 and 1 Peter 3:15.

Revelation 16:5 in J^7,8,13,14,16

"Thou art righteous, O Lord (יהוה), which art, and wast, and shalt be,"

Romans 10:9 in J^{12-14, 16-18, 22}

"For if you publicly declare that 'word in your own mouth' that Jesus is (haAdohn), and exercise faith in your heart that God raised him up from the dead, you will be saved."

These "J" Documents contain the phrase "Ha Adohn" which means the only true God--JEHOVAH. In Appendix 1H - p.1568, the New World Translation Reference Edition states: "The use of the definite article 'ha' before the title 'Adohn' limits the application of this title exclusively to Jehovah God." Yet, without any explanation in the footnote at Romans 10:9, the New World Bible Translation Committee states "Not Jehovah."

Acts 26:14,15 in J¹⁷,J¹⁸

"'Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting me?' But I said, 'Who are you Lord?" And the Lord (haAdohn - Jehovah God) said, 'I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting.'"

[Several places in the J Docs even name the Holy Spirit as YHWH.]

 

[HollyW]

9 hours ago, JW Insider said:

There is a lot of readily available research on this topic already online. As I began to join in, I also realized that I might be repeating information that has already come up in other questions and topics on this forum.

I'll start with the J docs that I arbitrarily assigned to Category #4. ,

The J Docs initially referred to about 19 different Hebrew translations (from Greek to "modern" Hebrew) numbered J¹, J², J³, etc, up to J¹⁹. A few more have now been added to the 1985 Reference NWT, but these include even more modern non-Hebrew translations that use a form of "Jehovah" in the NT.

From the standpoint of how the Greek Scriptures (NT) should be translated into English (or any other language) the "J Docs" are meaningless. I think that several of us have misinterpreted their importance. These have nothing to do with what the ancient Greek texts said or meant. They are not old texts from the viewpoint of the Scriptures. They are "modern" texts. (J² is the oldest from about 100 years before Columbus and the next oldest J⁷ is from about 100 years after Columbus. The rest are mostly from the 1800s through the late 1900's).

They are modern Hebrew translations of the New Testament. They were sometimes simply the work of biased Trinitarian missionaries who wanted to create a Christian ministry to Jewish speakers of Hebrew. They added the divine name in the places in the NT where they thought these verses should show a direct connection between the God/Lord of the OT and the God/Lord of the NT. They referred to God as YHWH even in cases where the NT was not quoting the OT. The problem is that the Trinitarian bias allowed these "translators" to pick several cases where even Jesus as Lord is directly connected to Jehovah as Lord.

Note this information about J¹⁸.  The 1969 edition of the Kingdom Interlinear Translation says:

J¹⁸ Greek Scriptures in Hebrew. In London, England, in 1885, a new Hebrew translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures was published. This new translation was commenced by Isaac Salkinson and completed after his death by Christian David Ginsburg. Our oldest copy is of the third edition published in 1891. This has been compared with the small edition published by the Trinitarian Bible Society, London, England, in 1939, and also with the Hebrew-English New Testament published in 1941 by the same Society (page 29).

Our old NWT Bibles (1950, 1951, 1963) used to include a statement about them altogether like this:

All together, the appearances of the sacred Tetragrammaton in the 19 Hebrew versions to which we have had access total up to 307 distinct occurrences."

But we didn't count all of the "distinct occurrences." There are over 100 additional distinct occurrences that we didn't count because we couldn't use them. Just a few examples will show why. This has already been started on other sites that I copy from below. They include HollyW's examples:

1 Corinth. 12:3 in J¹⁴

"...no one can say "Jesus is Lord (יהוה), except by the Holy Spirit."

1 Thess. 4:16,17 in J^7,8,13,14,24

"For the Lord (יהוה) himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first: Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord (יהוה) in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord (יהוה)."

2 Timothy 1:18 in J^{7,8,13,14,16,17,18,22,23,24}

"The Lord (יהוה) grant unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord (יהוה) in that day..."

Hebrews 1:10 in J⁸ in which Jehovah addresses the Son using the Divine Name.

"Thou, Lord (יהוה), in the beginning didst lay the foundation of the earth and the heavens are the works of thy hands."

1 Peter 2:3 in J¹³, J¹⁴

"If you have tasted the kindness of the Lord (יהוה)"

1 Peter 3:15 in J⁷

"but sanctify Christ as Lord (יהוה) in your hearts..."

J⁷ and J⁸ also adds "ha Mashiach" (the Messiah) or (the Christ) making this read: "Jehovah God, who is Christ." The 1985 KIT mentions the "J" versions in a footnote, but not that both J⁷ and J⁸ read "Sanctify Jehovah God (who is Christ) in your hearts." This is a quotation from Isaiah 8:12,13. Both the LXX and KIT Greek are nearly identical.

J²⁰ (Concordance to the Greek Testament) cites יהוה at both 1 Peter 2:3 and 1 Peter 3:15.

Revelation 16:5 in J^7,8,13,14,16

"Thou art righteous, O Lord (יהוה), which art, and wast, and shalt be,"

Romans 10:9 in J^{12-14, 16-18, 22}

"For if you publicly declare that 'word in your own mouth' that Jesus is (haAdohn), and exercise faith in your heart that God raised him up from the dead, you will be saved."

These "J" Documents contain the phrase "Ha Adohn" which means the only true God--JEHOVAH. In Appendix 1H - p.1568, the New World Translation Reference Edition states: "The use of the definite article 'ha' before the title 'Adohn' limits the application of this title exclusively to Jehovah God." Yet, without any explanation in the footnote at Romans 10:9, the New World Bible Translation Committee states "Not Jehovah."

Acts 26:14,15 in J¹⁷,J¹⁸

"'Saul, Saul, why are you persecuting me?' But I said, 'Who are you Lord?" And the Lord (haAdohn - Jehovah God) said, 'I am Jesus, whom you are persecuting.'"

[Several places in the J Docs even name the Holy Spirit as YHWH.]

 

Thank you, JW Insider, for your comprehensive research and for bringing up haAdohn in Romans 10:9.  The WTS reference about haAdohn shows that Jesus is Jehovah.

[JW Insider]

41 minutes ago, HollyW said:

Thank you, JW Insider, for your comprehensive research and for bringing up haAdohn in Romans 10:9.  The WTS reference about haAdohn shows that Jesus is Jehovah.

At this point it only shows that some modern translators of Romans 10:9 thought that Jesus is Jehovah. Romans 10:9 does not say the equivalent of haAdohn (THE Lord) in the Greek text. I am bringing these up to show that it is a mistake to rely on the "J Docs" (Hebrew versions) without recognizing what they are. They were produced for missionary purposes. In other words, they were produced for teaching the concept that the NT and OT could be connected in a way that Jewish readers should be able to see more clearly if the terms for Lord and God were replaced with "YHWH" or "the Name" or "Jehovah" etc.

When early missionaries went to the Native American tribes ("Indians") many of them in the 1600's and 1700's also had the concept that they would more easily understand the concept of the Lord Jesus of the NT being the same as the Lord Jehovah.of the OT. In fact, America was still seen as a "Promised Land" with native Americans thought of as related to the "lost tribes of Israel." This was not just a Mormon concept, but was also believed by many of the Puritans (pilgrims) who landed on Plymouth Rock. It's not surprising then that early native American translations also added in the term "Jehovah" to the NT. Note:

Choctaw version translated in 1949 by Cyrus Byington, a missionary from Massachusetts, says at John 20:28:

Chan [John] 20:28 Toma [Thomas] said to him "My Lord and My Chihowa! [Jehowa]"

A Mohawk translation says the following in John 1:1: 

"The Logos was with Yehovah. In fact, the Logos was Yehovah."

 

[JW Insider]

On 7/30/2016 at 1:59 PM, JAMMY said:

The first complete Bible printed in America^[21] by John Eliot, although not in English, frequently uses "Jehovah" in the New Testament.^[22]

Jammy,

I have checked every portion I could from this NT (in the Massachusett language), and I don't think it's correct to say that it uses "Jehovah" frequently. You can find each book here: http://people.umass.edu/aef6000/Texts/Algonquian/Algonquian.html

There was only one book I couldn't open, but it appears that only Matthew contains the name Jehovah, and only 3 times where it's a direct quote. Are there more instances that I missed? I think the choice of only placing the name "Jehovah" in Matthew and only at three of the more obvious direct quotations from the OT was intended to provide a "teaching" link back to the OT. The translators may have been considered that Matthew was the closest book to the OT, and there were also some who believed that Matthew was originally written in Hebrew.

[Arauna]

I have not seen anyone mention the 'Master' copies of the Bible.  These are copies that were made by scholars who compared the "extant" manuscripts, vellums, papyri and codices of the bible and made footnotes regarding any variations or alterations in the various extant texts.  This is how we know that the Bible has come down to us accurately because the variations are few and the alterations are verified by comparing extant documents. The Greek scriptures of the New World Translation was originally done from the reputable Master copy of "Westcott and Hort."   Read more about the comparison of extant documents here: http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200002893#h=15:0-15:1056   

Read more about the Paleography: http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/102008047.   

I must add: when one studies the internal logic of the core message of the bible and the fact that Israel was the first nation to serve a monotheistic god (while the rest of the world were polytheists) then one comes to the natural conclusion that this YHWH is a remarkable god and he has been working on a project which eventually will resolve all of mankind's problems.  He has allowed man to rule the earth to prove that we cannot rule successfully without his moral direction.  Adam and Eve chose independence from his right to choose "good and bad" for us.  Look, the nations at present more divided than ever and they will not cooperate together to get our problems resolved. The final outcome of what happens to this earth and the life on it, is closely tied up with the name God chose for himself: JHWH - I shall prove to be / he causes to become.   The new world translation 2013 has the name inserted in the new testament in a few places not indicated in ancient documents but in the talk the brothers made when they presented this new bible to us they gave the reasons why they did this.  Go and research this for yourselves.

[JW Insider]

On 7/30/2016 at 1:59 PM, JAMMY said:

The first complete Bible printed in America^[21] by John Eliot, although not in English, frequently uses "Jehovah" in the New Testament.^[22]

Apparently, John Eliot himself was also one of those persons who believed that the "Indian" tribes might have actually been Jews (lost Israelite tribes) which might add another reason why missionaries to "Indians" added the divine name to their translations of the NT in the same way that missionaries to the Jews added the divine name to modern Jewish translations. Note this from http://brown.edu/Facilities/John_Carter_Brown_Library/exhibitions/judaica/pages/tribes.html :

25.  Thomas Thorowgood. Ievves [Jewes] in America, or, Probabilities that the Americans are of that race.  London : W[illiam]. H[unt]. for Thomas Slater, 1650.

Here, Thomas Thorowgood joins the argument, drawing much from the writings of Menasseh ben Israel.  The possible rediscovery of “lost Jews” interested Thorowgood and others in a millennial context, and he also drew on the writings of the Puritan missionary John Eliot, who had spent time among the Indians at Roxbury, Massachusetts, outside Boston.

 

[JW Insider]

1 hour ago, Arauna said:

I have not seen anyone mention the 'Master' copies of the Bible.  These are copies that were made by scholars who compared the "extant" manuscripts, vellums, papyri and codices of the bible and made footnotes regarding any variations or alterations in the various extant texts.  This is how we know that the Bible has come down to us accurately because the variations are few and the alterations are verified by comparing extant documents. The Greek scriptures of the New World Translation was originally done from the reputable Master copy of "Westcott and Hort." 

You are correct about the "Master" copies of the Bible such as the Westcott and Hort (WH) text along with the partial "critical apparatus" prepared by them to explain how they decided which were the best readings from among the choices. But it's this is actually the crux of the problem. The Westcott and Hort text is one of those "Master" texts that shows that there is still not one single bit of evidence for the divine name in any Greek texts ever discovered over the past nearly 2,000 years.

(This is NOT an argument that we should not use the divine name, only that we should be careful when we imply that texts like the WH text of the NT provide an indication that the NWT committee might have discovered evidence for putting the divine name in the NT. The Westcott and Hort text only provides additional evidence that neither the divine name, nor anything like it, has ever been found in any Bible text of the Christian Greek Scriptures, aka, New Testament).

This does not mean that it was never there, only that there is still no evidence for it.

[JW Insider]

2 hours ago, Arauna said:

I must add: when one studies the internal logic of the core message of the bible and the fact that Israel was the first nation to serve a monotheistic god (while the rest of the world were polytheists) then one comes to the natural conclusion that this YHWH is a remarkable god and he has been working on a project which eventually will resolve all of mankind's problems.  He has allowed man to rule the earth to prove that we cannot rule successfully without his moral direction.  Adam and Eve chose independence from his right to choose "good and bad" for us.  Look, the nations at present more divided than ever and they will not cooperate together to get our problems resolved. The final outcome of what happens to this earth and the life on it, is closely tied up with the name God chose for himself: JHWH - I shall prove to be / he causes to become.

This is profoundly true, and I liked the way you worded it, too.

[JAMMY]

@Jay Witness, I do not know if this will help you any, but I would be remiss if not sharing with you.

Quote

The first complete Bible printed in America^[21] by John Eliot, although not in English, frequently uses "Jehovah" in the New Testament.^[22]

Quote

English translations

Most English Bibles, even those such as the Jerusalem Bible which has Yahweh in the Old Testament, do not use Yahweh in the New Testament. This is because the Greek New Testament manuscripts are quoting the Septuagint, where the Hebrew YHWH is translated as kyrios. The New Testament uses Greek kyrios for YHWH even, for example, when Jesus reads the Isaiah scroll at the synagogue in Nazareth (Luke 4:17–19 reading Isaiah 61:1).^[19]

A few English translations of the Bible do use Jehovah in the New Testament. For example, William Newcome, in what is sometimes known as "Archbishop Newcome's new translation", has the name Jehovah a few times where the New Testament quotes from the Old Testament, such as Matthew 22:24.^[20] The first complete Bible printed in America^[21] by John Eliot, although not in English, frequently uses "Jehovah" in the New Testament.^[22]

The New World Translation

The rendering Jehovah appears 7,216 times—including 237 times in the New Testament—in the New World Translation (NWT) published by Watch Tower Bible and Tract Society and used by Jehovah's Witnesses.^[23] Jehovah's Witnesses say that the authors of the New Testament writings retained the Tetragrammaton in their quotations of the Old Testament without substituting it with Kurios.^[24]

I really admire that you are an excellent researcher and lover of truth. As I am sure you saw, my post was a quote from Wikipedia. Aren't we thankful that Jehovah has preserved the truth for us?

Quote

 

 

[HollyW]

4 hours ago, JW Insider said:

At this point it only shows that some modern translators of Romans 10:9 thought that Jesus is Jehovah. Romans 10:9 does not say the equivalent of haAdohn (THE Lord) in the Greek text.  

 

That's why I was pointing out that it's the WTS reference that is showing Jesus is Jehovah since it is their claim that ʼA·dhohn′, “Lord; Master,” when preceded by the definite article ha, “the,” gives the expression ha·ʼA·dhohn′, “the [true] Lord.” The use of the definite article ha before the title ʼA·dhohn′ limits the application of this title exclusively to Jehovah God.  [rbi8 1h p.1568]

When asked about Romans 10:9 and the NWT footnote, it was explained in this way: Translating the Greek word Ky′ri·os into Hebrew as ha-A·dōn′ is merely the opinion of certain translators, for in the Greek text the definite article does not occur with “Lord” in this verse.[QFR w81 8/1 p. 31]

However, in the OT scriptures the WTS cites as having haAdohn in the Hebrew, when translated into Greek in the LXX the definite article does not occur with "Lord" in those verses either.  In the NWT it is said that the expression ha·ʼA·dhohn′ occurs nine times, namely, in Ex 23:17;  34:23; Isa 1:24;  3:1;  10:16, 33;  19:4; Mic 4:13; Mal 3:1. In the Greek translation of these verses, the definite article occurs with "Lord" only in Micah 4:13.

[HollyW]

2 hours ago, Arauna said:

I have not seen anyone mention the 'Master' copies of the Bible.  These are copies that were made by scholars who compared the "extant" manuscripts, vellums, papyri and codices of the bible and made footnotes regarding any variations or alterations in the various extant texts.  This is how we know that the Bible has come down to us accurately because the variations are few and the alterations are verified by comparing extant documents. The Greek scriptures of the New World Translation was originally done from the reputable Master copy of "Westcott and Hort."   Read more about the comparison of extant documents here: http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200002893#h=15:0-15:1056   

Read more about the Paleography: http://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/102008047.   

I must add: when one studies the internal logic of the core message of the bible and the fact that Israel was the first nation to serve a monotheistic god (while the rest of the world were polytheists) then one comes to the natural conclusion that this YHWH is a remarkable god and he has been working on a project which eventually will resolve all of mankind's problems.  He has allowed man to rule the earth to prove that we cannot rule successfully without his moral direction.  Adam and Eve chose independence from his right to choose "good and bad" for us.  Look, the nations at present more divided than ever and they will not cooperate together to get our problems resolved. The final outcome of what happens to this earth and the life on it, is closely tied up with the name God chose for himself: JHWH - I shall prove to be / he causes to become.   The new world translation 2013 has the name inserted in the new testament in a few places not indicated in ancient documents but in the talk the brothers made when they presented this new bible to us they gave the reasons why they did this.  Go and research this for yourselves.

The thing is, while on the one hand the WTS says the Bible has come down to us accurately, it also says the texts were tampered with in "one of the saddest and most reprehensible" ways, that of removing God's name.  The Society also calls into question translations of the Bible that have done this, saying: Show discernment in the selection of the Bible you use. (Proverbs 19:8) If a translation is not honest about the identity of God himself—removing his name from his inspired Word on whatever pretext—might the translators also have tampered with other parts of the Bible text? [Watchtower 10/1/1997 p.20]

[JW Insider]

16 hours ago, HollyW said:

When asked about Romans 10:9 and the NWT footnote, it was explained in this way: Translating the Greek word Ky′ri·os into Hebrew as ha-A·dōn′ is merely the opinion of certain translators, for in the Greek text the definite article does not occur with “Lord” in this verse.[QFR w81 8/1 p. 31]

I agree. This is exactly the same as what I said. And it sounds like you can agree up to this point, too.

16 hours ago, HollyW said:

However, in the OT scriptures the WTS cites as having haAdohn in the Hebrew, when translated into Greek in the LXX the definite article does not occur with "Lord" in those verses either.  In the NWT it is said that the expression ha·ʼA·dhohn′ occurs nine times, namely, in Ex 23:17;  34:23; Isa 1:24;  3:1;  10:16, 33;  19:4; Mic 4:13; Mal 3:1. In the Greek translation of these verses, the definite article occurs with "Lord" only in Micah 4:13.

In English we have a similar use of the definite article "the". We do use it in front of Lord when we mean "God" but this is likely a historical artifact for distinguishing it from other lords and masters on earth. ("House of Lords," etc). We don't need it in front of "God" because this word usually refers to one person alone. I can say, "I am going to pray to the God," but I would only say that if the context required me to distinguish from other gods. It's the same in Greek if Lord is clearly understood in the immediate context to be only the true God."  In the verses shown, most of them show from immediate context that only one person is spoken of. Micah 4:13 is a parallel [poetic] construction where "the Lord of all the Earth" stands in its own stanza/phrase. 

Exodus 23:17 is a perfect example of why the LXX would NOT require the definite article to correctly translate the sense of the Hebrew. Note: " Exodus 23:17  τρεῖς καιροὺς τοῦ ἐνιαυτοῦ ὀφθήσεται πᾶν ἀρσενικόν σου ἐνώπιον κυρίου τοῦ θεοῦ σου " Note that it ends "enopion kuriou tou theou sou" referring to appearing before [literally] "lord the God of you." The original Hebrew had said: "appear before the Lord Jehovah." So the "THE" was translated into the Greek LXX, but used in front of God, rather than Lord, where God replaced YHWH in the LXX, not specifically "Lord" which was more typical. Similar reasons account for the LXX translation choice in the other verses, too:  Exodus 34:23  τρεῖς καιροὺς τοῦ ἐνιαυτοῦ ὀφθήσεται πᾶν ἀρσενικόν σου ἐνώπιον κυρίου τοῦ θεοῦ Ισραηλ. It's almost the same here, where the Hebrew originally said: "the Lord Jehovah, God of Israel. The LXX put the "the" in front of "God" and dropped "Jehovah" ending up with "before Lord, the God of Israel." So "the" does still appear properly, just not attached to "kuriou" but to "theou" instead.