Where does the NT tell us to name the name of Jehovah?

[Jesus.defender]

Where does the NT tell us to name the name of Jehovah?

[Evacuated]

When it quotes from Joel 2:32:"Everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved." 

at Acts 2:21: "And everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved"

and Rom 10:13: "For “everyone who calls on the name of Jehovah will be saved.”"

[Shiwiii]

The name Jehovah is no where to be found in the Greek scriptures. It is added by men into the NT where it never was.

 

The idea that God cannot preserve His own name in His word without the help of man is absurd.  This limits God and elevates man. 

[Evacuated]

Do you mean like Moses added it in in Genesis? Or different?

 

IN this discussion when asked if Moses inserted the name Jehovah into the book of Genesis you said:

Shiwii: 

Posted 14 May

Under inspiration,  Moses wrote. When he wrote exodus, he said that Abraham, Isaac and Jacob did not know God's name. God told Moses this directly. 

It is my belief that no one before Moses knew God's name, based on Exodus. So to answer you plainly, yes

[Shiwiii]

54 minutes ago, Eoin Joyce said:

Do you mean like Moses added it in in Genesis? Or different?

 

IN this discussion when asked if Moses inserted the name Jehovah into the book of Genesis you said:

Shiwii: 

Posted 14 May

Under inspiration,  Moses wrote. When he wrote exodus, he said that Abraham, Isaac and Jacob did not know God's name. God told Moses this directly. 

It is my belief that no one before Moses knew God's name, based on Exodus. So to answer you plainly, yes

No I mean a man or men who was/ were NOT inspired! 

[Shiwiii]

2 hours ago, Eoin Joyce said:

Do you mean like Moses added it in in Genesis? Or different?

 

IN this discussion when asked if Moses inserted the name Jehovah into the book of Genesis you said:

Shiwii: 

Posted 14 May

Under inspiration,  Moses wrote. When he wrote exodus, he said that Abraham, Isaac and Jacob did not know God's name. God told Moses this directly. 

It is my belief that no one before Moses knew God's name, based on Exodus. So to answer you plainly, yes

I am glad you quoted it properly. The first two words in my statement distinguish Moses from the wt translator(s). Unless you believe that they were inspired. They quoted Johannes Greber as their source for their John 1:1. Was he inspired? sure was, but it was not inspiration from God. Look it up if you don't believe me. Self proclaimed spiritualist as was his wife.  So maybe you ARE thinking that the wt translator(s) are inspired, possibly like Mr Greber was???

 

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Johannes_Greber

http://www.communicationwithgod.info/page1

[Evacuated]

Jehovah's Witnesses understanding of this John 1:1 is in harmony with the authority of the inspirer of the Holy Scriptures and Jehovah God Himself. That is because their understanding of the text is in harmonizes with the whole Bible teaching about Jesus, God's Son. There are many others who agree with this understanding and rehashing their arguments here is unnecessary.

As for Greber's alleged source of  "inspiration", this is of no consequence. Even if his translation of the scripture was demon-inspired, the precedent of demon-inspired utterances AGREEING with the truth was set long before anyway, compare Acts 16:16-17 in Greber's translation (rendered in English)

16 One day as we were on our way to the same place of worship, we met a slave-girl through whom a spirit gifted with the power of divination spoke, and who in this way earned much money for her 17 employers. She followed Paul and us, and cried, "These men are servants of the Most High, and they are showing you the way to 18 salvation."

This side issue in no way discounts that the Greek scriptures in quoting the text of Joel 2:32 should contain the Divine name Jehovah.

[Shiwiii]

3 hours ago, Eoin Joyce said:

Jehovah's Witnesses understanding of this John 1:1 is in harmony with the authority of the inspirer of the Holy Scriptures and Jehovah God Himself. That is because their understanding of the text is in harmonizes with the whole Bible teaching about Jesus, God's Son. There are many others who agree with this understanding and rehashing their arguments here is unnecessary.

If this were the case, then it would have been passed down by not just the apostles but also their successors. Research Irenaeus of Lyons,Ignatius of Antioch or Polycarp for example. 

 

4 hours ago, Eoin Joyce said:

As for Greber's alleged source of  "inspiration", this is of no consequence. Even if his translation of the scripture was demon-inspired, the precedent of demon-inspired utterances AGREEING with the truth was set long before anyway, compare Acts 16:16-17 in Greber's translation (rendered in English)

So you are ok with agreeing with a demon? yikes! 

 

4 hours ago, Eoin Joyce said:

This side issue in no way discounts that the Greek scriptures in quoting the text of Joel 2:32 should contain the Divine name Jehovah.

The quote of Joel was applied to Jesus. That is the whole point of it being quoted in the first place. 

[Evacuated]

16 minutes ago, Shiwiii said:

So you are ok with agreeing with a demon? yikes! 

More a case of demons agreeing with the truth: Matt 8:29

 

22 minutes ago, Shiwiii said:

If this were the case, then it would have been passed down by not just the apostles but also their successors. Research Irenaeus of Lyons,Ignatius of Antioch or Polycarp for example.

I have, and there are sufficient numbers of folk like your self arguing for and against trinitarian "church father" beliefs. Reminds me of Paul's experience at Acts 23:7. I will leave it to you people to fight it out. Let me know if anyone wins.

 

29 minutes ago, Shiwiii said:

The quote of Joel was applied to Jesus. That is the whole point of it being quoted in the first place.

Man. We are on different planets!! I will stick with Joel on this one.

[Shiwiii]

2 minutes ago, Eoin Joyce said:

Man. We are on different planets!!

I quite agree.

[Manuel Boyet Enicola]

On 5/26/2016 at 0:00 AM, Shiwiii said:

The name Jehovah is no where to be found in the Greek scriptures. It is added by men into the NT where it never was. 

NWT did not "add" the name Jehovah in the NT.  Other translators did it decades before.  NWT simply followed the practice. 

So the question is:  Did Jehovah really appeared in the NT text? The probable answer is yes, because the apostles quoted freely from the Hebrew bible or its Greek equivalent, the Septuagint.  And old extant copies of the Septuagint contain the tetragramatton in Hebrew letters amid the Greek text.  http://www.eliyah.com/lxx.html 

[Shiwiii]

3 minutes ago, Manuel Boyet Enicola said:

NWT did not "add" the name Jehovah in the NT.  Other translators did it decades before.  NWT simply followed the practice. 

So the question is:  Did Jehovah really appeared in the NT text? The probable answer is yes, because the apostles quoted freely from the Hebrew bible or its Greek equivalent, the Septuagint.  And old extant copies of the Septuagint contain the tetragramatton in Hebrew letters amid the Greek text.  http://www.eliyah.com/lxx.html 

What proof is there of this statement of yours? All of the early manuscripts do not contain the name jehovah. None. 

A quotation of the Greek septuigent still does not contain "jehovah". When it is quoted of Jesus, the nwt omits this and adds "lord" when applied to Him. 

Put you proof out here so we can discuss it.